Acts 17:11

These (Bereans) were more noble than those in Thessalonica,
in that they received the word with all readiness of mind,
and searched the Scriptures daily, whether those things were so.

We receive many questions from around the world submitted by believers hungry for The Truth, and we believe that

2 Peter 1:3  According as his divine power hath given unto us all things that pertain unto life and godliness, through the knowledge of Him that hath called us to glory and virtue:

As we study His Word together, we get to know Him, and as we go to His Word seeking His Truth, we learn to trust Him in all things. Sometimes, a quick answer to one of life's many complex questions is not spelled out in a specific verse or verses, but as we pray, study, and seek His Wisdom, we are taught to;

Proverbs 3:5  Trust in the LORD with all thine heart; and lean not unto thine own understanding.
Proverbs 3:6  In all thy ways acknowledge Him, and He shall direct thy paths.

This section contains a collection of just a few of the thousands of questions submitted and answers supplied from Scripture over the years. As you read them, we trust The Holy Spirit will enlighten you to His Truth, and if you find yourself thinking, "I have some questions I would like answered," please write and find other believers eager to discover and share God's Wonderful Word with you.

What Do We Have Of The Original Manuscripts Of The Word Of God

There are many skeptics who claim that The Ancient Manuscripts of Scripture are incomplete or that the original translators used manuscripts that were corrupt in one fashion or another, and so the Hebrew, Greek, and English works we have today are not The Word of God and the world is in need of additional works to clear up the errors. While it is true that one can not buy a version of a translation that is The Perfect Word of God, we believe God has so protected His Word through the ages that the diligent student of The Scriptures may find His Words and eat them (Jer. 15:16) and be filled with The Bread of Life (John 6:48-51) the joy and rejoicing of their heart (Jer. 15:16).

As an example of those who feel our manuscripts are deficient and the need for additional translations, we cite how the NIV (New International Version) regards Mark 16:9-20 as not being in the "reliable early manuscripts." Here is a direct quote: "The most reliable early manuscripts and other ancient witnesses do not have Mark 16:9-20.”  Thus, the NIV translators suggest that these verses do not belong, a claim many have supported to the consternation of some believers. Many ancient Greek classes claim that these verses "clearly" do not belong in The Scriptures and that The Book should end with Mark 16:8 and the women running from the tomb in unbelief. Before we consider these "scholars" theories as Truth, let's consider the evidence. 

When we are confronted with a charge against some passage of The Bible, it is imperative that we collect all the evidence in the matter before we attempt to make a judgment on its validity. What are these "ancient Greek manuscripts" that do not contain these verses in The Gospel of Mark? How old are they, how many are there, and how authoritative are they? For the answer to this argument, we would like to quote in part a passage by Dr. E.W. Bullinger in his Appendices to the Companion Bible. He examines this question in detail and reveals to us what the evidence for and against this passage actually is. (Note: Bullinger uses "MSS." as an abbreviation for "manuscripts.”)

As To The Greek Manuscripts, there are none older than the fourth century, and the oldest are two Uncial MSS. that do not contain those twelve verses. Of all the others (consisting of some eighteen Uncials and some six hundred Cursive MSS. which all contain the Gospel of Mark), not one leaves out these twelve verses.

So the score is 2 - Against and 618 - For. This evidence and the fact that if this were a sport's score, it would be game over with an obvious winner. One must admit the numbers prove rather overwhelming evidence in favor of the passage's validity. But the evidence does not stop there, so let's explore what additional evidence Dr. Bullinger can share with us.

There are translations of The Bible into other languages that are far older than our most ancient Greek manuscripts:

Ancient  Translations of The Bible and their Versions:--

The Syriac. The oldest is the Syriac in its various forms:  the "Peshitto" (century 2) and the "Curetonian Syriac" (century 3). Both are older than any Greek MS. in existence.

The Latin Versions. Jerome (A.D. 382), who had access to Greek MSS. older than any now extant, this Version (known as the Vulgate) was only a revision of the Vetus Itala, which is believed to belong to century 2.

The Gothic Version (A.D. 350).

The Egyptian Versions:  the Memphitic (or Lower Egyptian, less properly called "Coptic"), belonging to century 4 or 5, and the "Thebaic" (or Upper Egyptian, less properly called the "Sahidic"), belonging to century 3.

The Armenian (century 5), The Ethiopic (century 4-7), and the Georgian (century 6).

One of the versions of particular note is the Syriac that Dr. Bullinger mentioned above, which is a version translating the Bible into Aramaic, the common language of Israel at the time, and which dates from the second century when it was first translated. Thus, the Syriac is two hundred years older than the two oldest Greek manuscripts that do not contain these verses. This should raise serious questions about those two oldest Greek manuscripts and those who use them to "prove" that the verses in question did not originally exist in Mark's Gospel and were added later. How could these verses have been added after the fourth century into our Greek Bibles if they already existed two hundred years BEFORE they were supposedly added in? We would like to hear about anything that existed two hundred years before it was created. That would be an interesting thing indeed. But the evidence does not stop there. Let us go on with Dr. Bullinger.

THE FATHERS. Whatever may be the value (or otherwise ) of their writings as to doctrine and interpretation must be studied yet, in the determination of actual words or their form, or sequencing of their evidence, even by an allusion, as to whether a verse or verses existed or not in their day, these books can be more valuable than even manuscripts or Versions.

There are nearly a hundred ecclesiastical writers older than the oldest of our Greek codices, while between A.D. 300 and A.D. 600, there are about two hundred more.

Here are just a few:

Papias (about A.D. 100).
Justin Martyr (A.D. 151).
Irenaeus (A.D. 180).
Hippolytus (A.D. 190-227).
Vincentius (A.D. 256) .
The Acta Pilati (century 2).
The Apostolical Constitutions (century 3 or 4).
Eusebius (A.D. 325).
Aphraartes (A.D. 337).
Ambrose (A.D. 374-97).
Chrysostom (A.D. 400).
Jerome (b. 331, d. 420).
Augustine (fl. A.D. 395-430).
Nestorius (century 5).
Cyril Of Alexandria (A.D. 430).
Victor Of Antioch (A.D. 425) confutes the opinion of Eusebius by referring to very many MSS. which he had seen.

The Bible claims to be The Word of God, coming from Himself as His Revelation to man. If these claims are not true, then The Bible cannot be even "a good book." In this respect, "The Living Word" is like The Written Word, for if the claims of The Lord Jesus being God are not True, He could not even be "a good man." As to those claims, man can believe them or leave them. In the former case, he goes to The Word of God and is overwhelmed with an abundance of evidence of its Truth; in the latter case, he abandons Divine Revelation for man's imagination.

In Divine Revelation "holy men spake from God as they were moved (or borne along) by the Holy Spirit" (2 Pet. 1:21). The wind, as it is borne along among the trees, causes each tree to give forth its own peculiar sound, so that the experienced ear of a woodman could tell, even in the dark, the name of the tree under which he might be standing, and distinguish the creaking elm from the rustling aspen. Even so, while each "holy man of God" is "moved" by One Spirit, the individuality of the inspired writers is preserved. Thus, we may explain the medical words of "Luke the beloved physician" used in his Gospel and in the Acts of the Apostles (Col. 4:14).

As to Inspiration itself, we have no need to resort to human theories or definitions, as we have a Divine definition in Acts 1:16, which is all-sufficient. "This scripture must needs have been fulfilled, which the Holy Ghost, by the mouth of David, spake before concerning Judas."  The reference is to Psalm 41:9.

It is "by the mouth" and "by the hand" of holy men that God has spoken to us. Hence, it was David's voice and David's pen, but the words were not David's words.

Nothing more is required to settle the faith of all believers, but it requires Divine operation to convince unbelievers; hence, it is vain to depend on human arguments.

As To Language

With regard to this, it is generally assumed that because The New Testament comes to us in Greek, the N.T. ought to be in classical Greek and is then condemned because it is not! Classical Greek was at its prime some centuries before, and in the time of our Lord, there were several reasons why the N.T. was not written in classical Greek.

The writers were Hebrews; thus, while the language is Greek, the thoughts and idioms are Hebrew. These idioms or Hebraisms are generally pointed out in the notes of The Companion Bible. Most readings will be accounted for and understood if the Greek of the N.T. is regarded as an inspired translation from Hebrew or Aramaic originals.

Then we have to remember that in the time of our Lord, there were no less than four languages in use in Palestine, and their mixture formed the "Yiddish" of those days.

There was HEBREW, spoken by Hebrews;
There was GREEK, which was spoken in Palestine by the educated classes generally;
There was LATIN, the language of the Romans, who then held possession of the land;
And there was ARAMAIC, the language of the common people.

Doubtless, our Lord spoke all these (for we never read of Him using an interpreter). In the synagogues, He would necessarily use Hebrew; to Pilate, He would naturally answer in Latin; while to the common people, He would doubtless speak in Aramaic.

ARAMAIC was Hebrew, developed during and after the Captivity in Babylon. There were two branches, known roughly as Eastern (which is Chaldee) and Western (Mesopotamian or Palestinian). This latter was known also as Syriac, and the Greeks used "Syrian" as an abbreviation for Assyrian. The early Christians perpetuated this. Syriac flourished till the seventh century A.D. In the eighth and ninth, it was overtaken by the Arabic, and by the thirteenth century, it had disappeared. We have noted that certain parts of the O.T. are written in Chaldee (or Eastern Aramaic). Ezra 4:8-6:18; Ezra 7:12-26; Dan. 2:4-7:28. Cp. also 2 Kings 18:26.

Aramaic is of three kinds:-- 1. Jerusalem.  2. Samaritan.  3. Galilean.
Of these, Jerusalem might be compared with High German and the other two with Low German.

There are many Aramaic words preserved in the Greek of the N.T., and most of the commentators call attention to a few of them; but, from the books cited below, we are able to present a more or less complete list of the examples to which attention is called in the notes of The Companion Bible.

Abba. Mark 14:36; Rom. 8:15; Gal. 4:6.
Ainias.  Acts 9:33-34.
Akeldama.  Acts 1:19.  Akeldamach (LA).  Acheldamach (T Tr.).  Hacheldamach (WH).  See Ap. 161. I.   Aram. Hakal dema', or Hakal demah .
Alphaios.  Matt. 10:3; Mark 2:14; Mark 3:18; Luke 6:15;  Acts 1:13.
Annas. Luke 3:2; John 18:13; John 18:24;  Acts 4:6.
Bar-abbas.  Matt. 27:16-17; Matt. 27:20-21;  Matt. 27:26; Mark 15:7; Mark 15:11; Mark 15:15; Luke 23:18; John 18:40.
Bartholomaios. Matt. 10:3; Mark 3:18; Luke 6:14; Acts 1:13.
Bar-iesous.  Acts 13:6.
Bar-iona.  Matt. 16:17.
Bar-nabas.  Acts 4:36; &c. 1Cor. 9:6; Gal. 2:1; Gal. 2:9; Gal. 2:13;  Col. 4:10.
Bar-sabas.  Acts 1:23; Acts 15:22 (Barsabbas all the texts).
Bar-timaios.  Mark 10:46.
Beel-zeboul.  Matt. 10:25; Matt.12:24-27; Mark 3:22; Luke 11:15-19.
Bethesda. John 5:2.  (Bethzatha, T WH; Bethsaida, or Bethzather , L EH Rm.)
Bethsaida. Matt. 11:21; Mark 6:45; Mark 8:22; Luke 9:10; Luke 10:13; John 1:44; John 12:21.
Bethphage. Matt. 21:1; Mark 11:1; Luke 19:29.
Boanerges.  Mark 3:17.  (Boanerges, L T Tr. A WH.)
Gethsemanei.  Matt. 26:36; Mark 14:32.
Golgotha.  Matt. 27:33; Mark 15:22; John 19:17.
Eloi. Mark 15:34.
Ephphatha.  Mark 7:34.
Zakchaios.  Luke 19:2-8.
Zebedaios.  Matt. 4:21; Matt.10:2; Matt. 20:20; Matt. 26:37; Matt. 27:56; Mark 1:19; Mark 3:17; Mark 10:35; Luke 5:10; John 21:2.
Eli. Matt. 27:46. (Elei (voc.), T WH m.; Eloi WH.)
Thaddaios.  Matt. 10:3; Mark 3:18.
Thomas. Matt. 10:3; Mark 3:18; Luke 6:15; John 11:16; John 14:5; John 20:2-29; John 21:2; Acts 1:13.
Ioannes. John 1:42; John 21:15-17.  (Ioanes, Tr. WH.)  See Bar-iona .  (Iona being a contraction of Ioana.)
Kephas.  John 1:42; 1 Cor. 1:12; 1 Cor. 3:22; 1 Cor. 9:5; 1 Cor. 15:5; Gal. 2:9.
Kleopas.  Luke 24:18.
Klopas.  John 19:25.
Lama.  Matt. 27:46; Mark 15:34.  (Lema, L.  Lema, T Tr. A WH).
Mammonas. Matt. 6:24.  Luke 16:9, 11, 13.  (Mamonas, L T Tr. A WH.)
Maran-atha. 1Cor. 16:22  ( = Our Lord, come!).  Aram. Marana' tha'.
Martha. Luke 10:38; Luke 10:40; Luke 10:41;  John 11:1, &c.
Mattaios. Matt. 9:9; Matt. 10:3; Mark 3:18; Luke 6:15; Acts 1:13; Acts 1:26. (All the critics spell it Maththaios.)
Nazareth (- et). Matt. 2:23; Matt. 4:13 (Nazara, T Tr. A WH); Matt. 21:11; Mark 1:9; Luke 1:26; Luke 2:4; Luke 2:39; Luke 2:51; Luke 2:4:16 (Nazara.  Omit the Art. L T Tr. A WH and R.)  John 1:45-46; Acts 10:38.
Pascha. Matt. 26:2; Matt. 26:17-19; Mark 14:1; Mark 14:12-16; Luke 2:41; Luke 22:1-15; John 2:13; John2:23; John 6:4; John 11:55; John 12:1; John 13:1; John 18:28; John 18:39; John 19:14; Acts 12:4; 1Cor. 5:7; Heb. 11:28. The Hebrew is pesak.
Rabboni, Rabbouni (Rabbonei, WH).  Mark 10:51; John 20:16.
Raka. Matt. 5:22. (Reyka' is an abbreviation of Reykan.)
Sabachthani. Matt. 27:46; Mark 15:34; (Sabachthanei, T Tr. WH.)
Sabbata (Aram. sabbata').  Heb. shabbath. Matt. 12:1; Matt. 12:5; Matt. 12:10-12, &c.
Tabitha. Acts 9:36; Acts 9:40.
Talithakumi. Mark 5:41;  (In galilaean Aramaic it was talitha' kumi .)
Hosanna (in Aram. = Save us; in Heb. = Help us). Matt. 21:9-15; Mark 11:9-10; John 12:13.

The Papyri And Ostraca

Besides, the Greek text mentions ought to be made of these, although it concerns the interpretation of the text rather than the text itself. We have only to think of the changes that have taken place in our own English language during the last 300 years to understand the inexpressible usefulness of documents written on the material called papyrus and on pieces of broken pottery called ostraca, recently discovered in Egypt and elsewhere. They are found in the ruins of ancient temples and houses and in the rubbish heaps of towns and villages and are of great importance.

They consist of business letters, love letters, contracts, estimates, certificates, agreements, accounts, bills of sale, mortgages, school exercises, receipts, bribes, pawn tickets, charms, litanies, tales, magical literature, and literary production.

These are of inestimable value in enabling us to arrive at the true meaning of many words (used in the time of Christ) that were heretofore inexplicable. Examples may be seen in the notes on "scrip" (Matt. 10:10; Mark 6:8; Luke 9:3), "have" (Matt. 6:2, Matt. 6:5, Matt. 6:16.  Luke 6:24.  Philem. 1:15); "officer" (Luke 12:58); "presseth" (Luke 16:16); "suffereth violence" (Matt. 11:12), &c.

The Manuscripts of the Greek New Testament dating from the fourth century A.D. are more in number than those of any Greek or Roman author, for these latter are rare, and none are really ancient, while those of the N.T. have been set down by Dr. Scrivener at not less than 3,600, a few containing the whole, and the rest various parts, of the N.T.

The study of these from a literary point of view has been called "Textual Criticism," it necessarily proceeds altogether on documentary evidence, while "Modern Criticism" introduces the element of human opinion and hypothesis.

Man has never made proper use of God's gifts. God gave men the sun, moon, and stars for signs and seasons to govern the day, the night, and the years. But no one today can tell us what year (Anno Mundi ) we are actually living in! In like manner, God gave us His Word, but man compassed with infirmity, has failed to preserve and transmit it faithfully.

The worst part is that man charges God with the result and throws the blame on Him for all the confusion due to his own want of care. From very early times, the Old Testament had official custodians of the Hebrew text. Its Guilds of Scribes, Nakdanim, Sopherim, and Massorites elaborated plans by which the original text had been preserved with the greatest possible care. But though, in this respect, it had advantages that the Greek text of the N.T. never had, it nevertheless shows many signs of human failure and infirmity. Man has only to touch anything to leave his mark upon it. Hence, the MSS of the Greek Testament is to be studied today with the utmost care. The materials are:--

The MSS. themselves in whole or in part.
Ancient versions were made from them in other languages.
Citations made from them by early Christian writers long before the oldest MSS we possess (see Ap. 168).

As to the MSS. themselves, we must leave all palaeographical matters aside (such as having to do with paper, ink, and calligraphy) and confine ourselves to what is material.

These MSS. consist of two great classes :  (a) Those written in Uncial (or capital) letters and (b) those written in "running hand," called Cursives. The former is considered more ancient, although it is obvious and undeniable that some cursives maybe transcripts of Uncial MSS. more ancient than any existing Uncial MSS.

This will show that we cannot depend altogether upon textual criticism. It is more to our point to note that what are called "breathings" (soft or hard) and the accents are not found in any MSS. before the seventh century (unless they have been added by a later hand).

Punctuation also, as we have it today, is entirely absent. The earliest two MSS (known as B, the MS. in the Vatican, and the Sinaitic MS., now at St. Petersburg) have only an occasional dot, and this is on a level with the top of the letters. The text reads on without any divisions between letters or words until MSS. of the ninth century, when (in Cod. Augiensis, now in Cambridge) there is seen for the first time a single point that separates each word. This dot is placed in the middle of the line but is often omitted.

None of our modern punctuation marks are found until the ninth century, and only in Latin versions and some cursives. From this, it will be seen that the punctuation of all modern editions of the Greek text, and of all versions made from it, rests entirely on human authority and has no weight whatever in determining or even influencing the interpretation of a single passage.  This refers also to the employment of capital letters and to all the modern literary
refinements of the present day.

Chapters also were alike unknown. The Vatican MS. makes a new section where there is an evident break in the sense.  These are called titloe, or kephalaia.
There are none in a (Sinaitic), see above. They were not found till the fifth century in Codex A (British Museum), Codex C (Ephraemi, Paris), and Codex R (Nitriensis, British Museum) of the sixth century. They are quite foreign to the original texts. For a long time, they were attributed to HUGUES DE ST. CHER (Huego de Sancto Caro), Provincial to the Dominicans in France, and afterward a Cardinal in Spain, who died in 1263. But it is generally believed that they were made by STEPHEN LANGTON, Archbishop of Canterbury, who died in 1227. It follows, therefore, that our modern chapter divisions are also destitute of MS. authority.

As to verses in the Hebrew O.T., these were fixed and counted for each book by the Massorites, but they are unknown in any MSS. of the Greek N.T. There are none in the first printed text in The Complutensian Polyglot (1437-1517), in the first printed Greek text (Erasmus, in 1516), or in R. Stephens's first edition of 1550. Verses were first introduced in Stephens's smaller (16mo) edition, published in 1551 at Geneva. These also are, therefore, destitute of any authority.

The Printed Editions Of The Greek Text

Many printed editions followed the first efforts of ERASMUS. Omitting the Complutensian Polyglot mentioned above, the following is a list of all those of any importance:--

 1. Erasmus (1st Edition) 1516
 2. Stephens 1546-9
 3. Beza 1624
 4. Elzevir 1624
 5. Griesbach 1774-5
 6. Scholz 1830-6
 7. Lachmann 1831-50
 8. Tischendorf 1841-72
 9. Tregelles 1856-72
10. Alford 1862-71
11. Wordsworth 1870
12. Revisers' Text 1881
13. Westcott and Hort 1881-1903
14. Scrivener 1886
15. Weymouth 1886
16. Nestle 1904

All of the above are "Critical Texts," and each editor has striven to produce more accurate text than his predecessors. Beza (No. 3 above) and the Elzevir (No. 4) may be considered as being the so-called "Received Text," which the translators of the Authorized Version used in 1611. 

The "Word" comes to us in our English Translation. But it comes with much that is human in its Literary Divisions, and it is far from being rightly divided.

"The Word of God" as a whole comes to us in two separate parts: one written originally in Hebrew, the other in Greek. Only in the Versions are these two combined and bound together in one Book.

These divisions, of course, are not human, though the names are by which they are commonly known.

Up to the second century, the Greeks used the term "Old Covenant" to describe the Hebrew Bible. This passed into the Latin Vulgate as "Vetus Testamentum," from which our English term "Old Testament" was taken.

By way of distinction, the Greek portion was naturally spoken of as the "New Testament." But neither of these names is Divine in its origin.

When, however, we come to the Separate Books, though their origin is Divine, the human element is at once apparent.

(a) The Books of the Old Testament.—The Books as we have them today are not the same as in the Hebrew Canon, either as to their number, names, or order.

The change came about when the first Translation of the Hebrew Bible was made into Greek in the Version known as the Septuagint.

It was made in the latter part of the third century BC. The exact date is not known, but the consensus of opinion leans to about 286-285 BC.

It is the oldest of all the translations of the Hebrew Text, and its Divisions and arrangement of the Books have been followed in every translation since made.

Man has divided them into four classes: (1) The Law, (2) The Historical Books, (3) The Poetical Books, and (4) The Prophetical Books.

The Lord Jesus divides them into Three classes: (1) The Law, (2) The Prophets, and (3) The Psalms. And who will say that HE did not Rightly Divide them? But His Division was made according to the Hebrew Bible extant in His day, not according to man's Greek Translation of it—which was also extant at that time.

In the Hebrew Canon, these three Divisions contain twenty-four Books in the following order:—

This is how the Books are Rightly Divided in the Hebrew Bible. And it is sad to find so many good men exercising their ingenuity in order to find some Divine spiritual teaching in the utterly human and different order of the Books given in the Translations. One actually manufactures "five Pentateuchs," quite dislocating the Books of The Bible, and he arbitrarily re-arranges them to suit his theory. Another divides them by re-arranging them in what he conceives to be the chronological order, which results in the Psalms being dispersed among the Historical Books, among other calamities.

The "Higher" Critics would have us make a Hexateuch instead of a Pentateuch.

We fear it is hopeless to look for the Books to be Rightly Divided and arranged in the order of the Hebrew Canon, so we shall have to make the best of man's having wrongly divided the Word of Truth from the outset.

The number of Concordances, Commentaries, and general works where reference is made to the present chapters and verses would be sufficient to make such a change impossible, however desirable it might be on other grounds.

Nevertheless, it is well for those who would study the Word of Truth to have this information and to be in possession of the facts of the case, even if the result is only to prevent them from attaching any importance to the present order of the Books, and keep them from elaborating some scheme of doctrine or theology based on what is only human in its origin.

(b) The Books of the New Testament.—As to the Books of the New Testament, the problem presented is somewhat different. We find them in the Manuscripts generally in five groups: (1) the Gospels, (2) the Acts, (3) the General Epistles, (4) Paul's Epistles, and (5) the Apocalypse.

The order of these groups varies in certain MSS, and the order of the Books in the different groups varies. There is, however, one exception that we have elsewhere pointed out: The Epistles of Paul addressed to Churches are always in the same order as we have them in our English Bible today. Out of the hundreds of Greek MSS, no one has ever seen where the Canonical order of these Epistles is different from that in which they have come down to us.

We can, therefore, build our teaching on a sure foundation, though we cannot do so on the order of the other New Testament books.

The Divisions of the Hebrew Text

The Hebrew Text is divided (in the MSS) into five different forms:—

(a) Into open and closed Sections, answering somewhat to our paragraphs. These were to promote facility in reading.

(b) Into Sedarim or the Triennial Pericopes;*, i.e., Portions marked off: so that the Pentateuch is divided into 167 Pericopes or "Lessons," which are completed in a course of three years' reading. There are 452 of these Seders** in the Hebrew Bible, indicated by p, in the margin.

* Greek, from peri (around) and kopto (cut); a portion or extract Pronounced Pe-ric'-o-pe.

** From (sadar), to arrange in order.

(c) Besides these, the Pentateuch was divided into 54 Par'shioth or Annual Pericopes, which the Law was read through once a year.

(d) The division into verses. The verses in the Hebrew Bible are of ancient origin and were noted by a stroke called Silluk under the last word of each verse.

These words were carefully counted for each book. Hence, the Scribes were so called not because of their writing (from the Latin word Scribo) but because they were called Sopherim or Counters (from the Hebrew, Sopher, to count). The Massorah gives the number of verses as 23,203. 

The Divisions of the Greek Text

In the Greek MSS of the New Testament, sections are indicated in the margin, dividing the text according to the sense.

There is also a division of the Gospels ascribed to TATIAN (Century II.) called Kephalaia, i.e., heads or summaries: these are also known as Titloi or titles. In the third century, AMMONIUS divided the Text according to sections, known by his name: "The Ammonian Sections." In the fifth century, EUTHALIUS, a deacon of Alexandria, divided Paul's Epistles, the Acts, and the General Epistles into Kephalaia, and ANDREAS (Archbishop of Cæsarea in Cappadocia) completed the work by dividing the Apocalypse into 24 Logoi or paragraphs, each being again divided into three Kephalaia.

These dividings of the New Testament can be traced back to individual men and are all essentially human.

The Divisions of the Versions

(a) The Chapters.—There are other more modern divisions into Chapters. These are quite foreign to the Original Texts of the Old and New Testaments. They were attributed to Hughes De St. Cher (Hugo de Sancto Caro) for a long time. He was Provincial to the Dominicans in France and afterward a Cardinal in Spain: he died AD 1263. But it is generally believed that they were made by Stephen Langton, Archbishop of Canterbury, who died in 1227.

(b) The Verses.—Hugo made use of Langton's chapters and added subdivisions, which he indicated by letters. This was in 1248. Robert Stephens, finding these letters inadequate, introduced numbers in their place in his Greek Testament of 1551. This was the origin of our verse divisions, which were first introduced into the English Version known as the Geneva Bible (1560) and into our Authorized Version in 1611. These verses do not always correspond with those of the Hebrew Bible.

(c) The Chapter Breaks—As to these chapter divisions, they were not of Jewish origin and were never associated with the Hebrew Bible until AD 1330, when Rabbi Salomon Ben Ismael adopted the Christian chapters by placing the numerals in the margin to facilitate reference for purposes of controversy.*

* This appears from a note appended to MS No. 15 in the Cambridge University Library. See Dr. Ginsburg's Introduction, etc., p. 25.

In many cases, they agree with the Massoretic divisions of the Hebrew Bible, though there are glaring instances of divergence.*

* Up to AD 1517, the Editors of the Printed Text of the Hebrew Bible closely adhered to the MSS and ignored the Christian or Gentile chapters.

The Editors of the Complutensian Polyglot of Cardinal Ximenes (1514-1517) were the first to reverse this practice, but still confining the indications to the margin in Roman Numerals.

Felix Pratensis was the first to substitute Hebrew Letters for the Roman Numerals in his Edition printed by Bomberg, Venice, in AD 1517, though he retained the Massoretic divisions.

Jacob Ben Chayim adopted the same practice in his standard Edition (AD 1524-5), and it was continued down to 1751, when

Arias Montanus actually went so far as to break up the Hebrew Text and insert the Hebrew Letters (or Numerals) into the body of the Text in his edition printed at Antwerp in 1571.

From this, the "pernicious practice," as Dr. Ginsburg well calls it, has continued in the Editions of the Hebrew Text since printed, though it is discarded in his own Massoretico-Critical Edition, printed in Vienna in 1894 and published by the Trinitarian Bible Society of 7, Bury Street, Bloomsbury, London.

It will thus be seen how very modern and human and how devoid of all authority the chapter and verse divisions obtain in the version of the Bible generally and in our English Bible in particular. Though they are most useful for purposes of reference, we must be careful never to use them for interpretation or for doctrinal teaching. They seldom accord with the breaks required by the Structure. Sometimes, they break the connection altogether; at other times, they materially affect the sense.

As examples, where the chapter breaks interfere with the Connection and the Sense, we may notice Genesis 1 and 2, where the Introduction (Gen. 1:1-2:4) is broken up, and the commencement of the first of the Eleven Divisions (or "Generations") is hidden. This wrong break has led to serious confusion. Instead of seeing Gen. 1:1-2:3, a separate Summary of Creation in the form of an Introduction, many think they see two distinct creations, while others see a discrepancy between two accounts of the same creation.

The break between 2 Kings 6 and 7 should come after 2 Kings 7:2; that is to say, 2 Kings 7:1-2 should be 2 Kings 6:34-35.

The break between Isaiah 8 and 9 is, to say the least, most unfortunate, dislocating, as it does, the whole sense of the passage.

Isaiah 53 should commence at Isaiah 52:13. This agrees with its Structure:

A. 52:13-15. The foretold exaltation of Jehovah's Servant, the Messiah.

B. 53:1-6. His rejection by others.

B. 7-10. His own sufferings.

A. 10-12. The foretold exaltation of Messiah.

Isaiah 52:1-12 should have been the concluding portion of chapter 51.

Jeremiah 3:6 begins a new prophecy which goes down to the end of chapter 6.

Matthew 9:35-38 should belong to chapter 10.

John 3 should commence with John 2:23, thus connecting the remarks about "men" with the "man of the Pharisees."

John 8:1 should be the last verse of chapter 7, setting in contrast the destination of the people and that of the Lord.

In Acts 4, the last two verses should have been the first two verses of chapter 5.

We can quite see that Acts 7 is already a long chapter; the break between it and Chapter 6 is unfortunate because the connection between "these things" in Acts 7:1 is quite severed from the "things" referred to in Chapter 6.

The same is the case in Acts 8:1. Also in Acts 22:1.

Romans 4 ought to have run on to Rom. 5:11, as is clear from the argument, as shown by the Structure.

In the same way, Romans 6 ought to run on and end with Rom. 7:6, which concludes the subject. The commencement of Rom. 7:7, "What shall we say then?" would thus correspond with Rom. 6:1.

Romans 15:1-7 really belongs to chapter 14.

1 Corinthians 11:1 should be the last verse of chapter 10.

2 Corinthians 6 should end with 2 Cor. 7:1, for 2 Cor. 7:2 commences a new subject and leaves the "promises" of 2 Cor. 7:1 to be connected with the rehearsal of them in chapter 6.

In the same way, Philippians 3 ought to end with Phil. 4:1 to complete the sense.

Colossians 3 should end with Col. 4:1. Thus, "masters" would follow and stand in connection with the exhortation to "servants," and Col. 4:2 would commence the new subject.

In 1 Peter 2:1, the word "wherefore" points to the fact that this verse is closely connected with chapter 1.

2 Peter 2:1, in the same way, concludes chapter 1, and the "false prophets" are contrasted with the Divinely inspired prophets.

In 2 Timothy 4:1, the force of the word "therefore" is quite lost by being cut off from the conclusion of chapter 3.

Revelation 3, as a break, ought to be ignored, as it quite dislocates the seven letters to the Assemblies.

Revelation 13:1 belongs to, and is the conclusion of, chapter 12. The break is thus actually made in the RV, and the correct reading of the Greek MSS followed shows the close connection of the words "and he [i.e., Satan] stood upon the sand of the sea" with Rev. 12:17, and also with chapter 13 as containing the result of Satan's thus standing.

In the same way, the break between Revelation 21 and 22 is unfortunate, as the real chapter break should correspond with the Structure and come between verses 5 and 6 of chapter 22.

Other examples may easily be found, but these will be sufficient to show the importance of "Rightly Dividing the Word of Truth," even as to the Chapter Divisions.

(d) The Chapter and Running Page-Headings.— When these chapter divisions are combined with (1) the chapter headings and (2) the running page headings, they become positively mischievous, partaking of the nature of interpretation instead of translation. Needless to say, we may absolutely disregard them, as they always aggravate the chapter break and often mislead the reader.

The running page headings are a fruitful source of mischief. Over Isaiah 29 (as we have said above), in an ordinary Bible, we read "God's judgments upon Jerusalem." On the opposite page, we read Isaiah 30, "God's mercies to his church." The same may be seen in the concluding chapters of Isaiah, both in the running page headings and in the chapter headings. But there is no break or change in the subject matter. It consists of all "the vision which Isaiah saw concerning Judah and Jerusalem" (Isa. 1:1). Here is a "dividing" of the Word. But, the question is, can it be called "rightly dividing" when God's "mercies" are claimed for the Church, and His "judgments" generously given over to the Jews? Such "dividing" of the Word can hardly be said to be "without partiality."

(e) Punctuation.—One other mode of dividing the Word as to its Literary Form is by Punctuation, which is a still more important manner of dividing the Word, as it seriously affects the Text by dividing its sentences and thus fixing its sense.

The importance of this will be seen when we note that its effect is to fasten the interpretation of the translator onto the Word of God by making his translation part of that Word. It thus comes to the ordinary reader as part and parcel of the Truth of God, whereas it is absolutely arbitrary and is wholly destitute of either Divine or human authority.*

* Sometimes, a change of punctuation may be made through inadvertence or through ignorance. We have heard of 1 Corinthians 9:24 being read aloud thus: "They that run in a race run. All but one receiveth the prize." The ignorance that perpetrated this failed to see the bad grammar, which resulted in the last clause.

The Greek Manuscripts have practically no punctuation system: the most ancient, none at all; and the later MSS nothing more than an occasional single point even with the middle or in line with the top of the letters. Where there is anything more than this, it is generally agreed that it is the work of a later hand.

So, in the Original Manuscripts, we have no guide whatever to any dividing of the Text, whether rightly or wrongly. Indeed, there is no division in the most ancient MSS, but there is not even any break between the words! So that we can find no help from the MSS.

When they came to be collated, edited, and printed, the respective Editors introduced a system of punctuation. Each one followed his own plan and exercised his own human judgment. No two editors have punctuated the text in the same way, so we have no help from them.

When we come to the English Authorized Version, we are still left without guidance or help.

The Authorized Version of 1611 is destitute of any authority, for the Translators punctuated only according to their best judgment. But even here, few readers are aware of the many departures that have been made from the original Edition of 1611 and how many changes have been made in subsequent Editions.*

* These changes affect not merely punctuation but the marginal notes and references, the uses of capital letters and italic type, orthography, grammatical peculiarities, etc.

Some of these differences arise doubtless from oversight, but other changes have been made undoubtedly with deliberate intent. No one can tell who made them or when they were introduced. A few, however, can be traced.*

* A full account of these may be seen in the Report of the Select Committee of the House of Commons on the Queen's Printers' Patent, 1859, a Blue Book full of interesting information; also in Dr. Scrivener's Preface to The Cambridge Paragraph Bible of 1873.

The edition of 1616 was the first edition of the AV which shows any considerable revision. The first Cambridge Editions of 1638 and 1639 appear to have been a complete revision, though done without authority.

The Edition of 1660 added many marginal notes. 1701 was the first to introduce the marginal dates, tables of Scripture measures and weights, &c.

The Edition of 1762 contained serious attempts at improvements made by Dr. Paris. He was the first to substitute a full stop for the colon of 1611 in Zechariah 11:7, after "staves." This edition considerably extended the use of Italic type and incorporated Bishop Lloyd's chronological notes.

Dr. Blayney's Edition of 1769 introduced many changes and glaring errors, which, unfortunately, have been followed without inquiry and suspicion. These imperfections led to a great controversy and a Public inquiry, which included the policy of the Royal Patent and the working of the University Presses.

A Revision of the American Bible Society (1847-1851) prepared the way for our English Revised Version (1881-1885).

The "Advertisement" to the Universities' Edition, called "The Parallel Bible" (of the RV and AV), fully endorses all we have said:—

"The left-hand column contains the text of the Authorized Version as usually printed, with the marginal notes and references of the Edition of 1611; the spelling of these conformed to modern usage. In the left-hand margin are also placed, in square brackets, the more important differences between the edition of 1611 and the text now in use, whether these differences are due to corrections of the edition of 1611 or to errors that have subsequently crept in."

In spite of all these facts, many ill-informed readers of the English Bible take the punctuation as "Gospel truth" and not only build their own theories and bolster up their traditions upon it but treat as heretics and cast out almost as apostates anyone who dares to question the authority of this human interference with the Word of Truth, if it should run counter to their Traditions, which are generally based on such human foundations.

In view of this indefensible attitude, we shall have to show its utter groundlessness.

It is beside our present object to enumerate all the cases where the punctuation has been changed, though all are of interest, and many are of importance.

These changes may be classed under three heads.

1. 1. Where the Edition of 1611 is to be preferred to the later Editions.
   2. Where the changes in the later Editions are improvements and
   3. There are other proposed changes which we suggest as being most desirable.

We shall proceed to give a few examples under each of these three heads.

(1) Changes in punctuation where the Edition of 1611 is certainly preferred to the later Editions.

1 Kings 19:5, "And as he [Elijah] lay and slept under a juniper tree, behold then, an angel touched him." In 1769, this was altered to "behold, then." This comma after "behold" has continued to the present day.

Nehemiah 9:4, "Then stood up upon the stairs of the Levites, Joshua, &c." In the Edition of 1769, this was changed to "Then stood up upon the stairs, of the Levites, Joshua."

Psalm 79:11, "Come before thee, according to the greatness of thy power: Preserve thou, etc. instead of "come before thee; according to the greatness of thy power preserve thou." This change was made in 1769.

Psalm 89:46, "How long, LORD, wilt thou hide thyself, for ever?" instead of "How long, LORD? wilt thou hide thyself for ever?" The third comma of 1611 was removed in 1629,* 1638, 1744, 1769, and in the current editions.

* Not 1630. In 1762, this comma was replaced by a semicolon.

In Proverbs 1:27, the final colon of 1611-1630 after "cometh upon you" is preferable to the present full stop, introduced in 1629 and retained in the current editions.

In Proverbs 19:2, the comma before "sinneth" should be restored, which was discarded in 1762.

In Proverbs 21:28, the comma before "speaketh" should be restored, which was removed in 1769.

Hosea 7:11, "a silly dove, without heart" instead of "silly dove without heart," since 1629; as though the last two words related to the dove, instead of to Ephraim.

John 2:15, "and the sheep and the oxen." In 1630 (not 1638 and 1743), 1762, and current editions, a comma was introduced after "sheep."

John 18:3, "a band of men, and officers." 1769 the comma after "men" was dropped; hence, the Roman cohort was not distinguished from the Jewish officers.

Acts 11:26 "taught much people, and the disciples were called." This was so from 1611 to 1630, both clauses being dependent on the verb "it came to pass." Two things came to pass: (1) that the people were taught, and (2) that the disciples were first called Christians. But in 1638-1743, the comma was replaced by a semicolon, and in 1762 by a full stop: the latter being quite against the Greek.*

* The RV goes back to the semicolon but not to the comma of 1611.

2 Corinthians 13:2, "as if I were present the second time." This was so pointed from 1611-1762. But since 1769, a comma is inserted after "present," connecting "the second time" with the foretelling instead of with the being present.

Colossians 2:11. The comma was removed after "flesh" in 1762, thus making one statement instead of two. The two clauses begin with en th (en te)—"by the putting off" and "by the circumcision of Christ." That is to say: "In whom (Christ) ye are circumcised with a circumcision not done by hand, by the stripping off of the* body (i.e., the flesh),** by the circumcision of Christ." Thus, this comma after "flesh" makes the last clause explanatory of the one preceding it and shows that in Christ, there is something more than the stripping off the old nature, which is sinner ruin; even the flesh itself, which is involved in creature ruin.

* All the textual critics with RV omit "of the sins."

** Genitive of Apposition.

2 Thessalonians 1:8, "in flaming fire, taking vengeance." By removing this comma in 1769, the "fire" is wrongly connected with the "vengeance" instead of with the being "revealed" in 2 Thes. 1:7.

Hebrews 2:9. The comma was removed in 1769 after the word "angels," compelling us to connect "for the suffering of death" with Christ's humiliation instead of His crowning. If we rightly divide these words, the suffering will be practically put in parenthesis by the two commas, thus: "We see Jesus who was made a little lower than the angels, (for the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor), that he by the grace of God, should taste death for every* man." This comma is wrongly replaced in the RV.

* I.e., every, without distinction, not without exception.

Jude 1:7, "the cities about them, in like manner." The comma after "them" was removed in 1638 and 1699 (not 1743), while in 1762, it was placed after "in like manner," thus increasing the error.

(2) Changes in punctuation where the later editions of the AV are improvements.

These hardly need enumeration, seeing that they are not likely to be missed. We may, however, note a few:—

Matthew 19:4-5. In 1611, the mark of interrogation was placed at the end of Matt. 19:4, but for many years, it has been removed to the end of Matt. 19:5.

John 12:20, "And there were certain Greeks among them, that came up to worship at the Feast." This needless comma after "them" was not removed till 1769.

Titus 2:13, "The appearing of the great God, and our Saviour Jesus Christ." This misleading comma, after "God," lingered till 1769, thus hiding the fact that only one Being is spoken of, viz., "God even our Saviour": i.e., our great Saviour-God, Jesus Christ.

Luke 23:32, "And there were also two other malefactors, led with him to be put to death." This, of course, practically classed the Lord Jesus as being one of three malefactors. But since 1817, a comma has been placed after the word "other," to avoid this implication.*

* This is far better than changing "other" to "others," as is done in the American Bible, 1867. This antiquated plural is continued in the American Edition of the RV of 1898.

Acts 27:27, "as we were driven up and down in Adria about midnight, the shipmen deemed that they drew near to some country." Not until after 1638 was the comma removed from after "midnight" and placed after "Adria"—"driven up and down in Adria, about midnight the shipment deemed," &c.

(3) Changes in punctuation, which are now proposed as being most desirable.

These proposed changes are improvements in the punctuation of the Edition of 1611 and subsequent editions. These suggestions are made from a better understanding, closer study of, and respect for the Context, as modifying or correcting traditional interpretations.

That we are more than warranted in such an attempt is shown by the Revisers in a note they affix to Romans 9:5. In this passage, in all the editions, the full stop is placed after the word "ever," thus: "Of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen."

This text, being so weighty in witnessing to the Godhead of the Lord Jesus, was evidently distasteful to the Socinian member of the Company of Revisers, and, judging from the note placed in the margin, one can imagine what line the discussion had taken. All other marginal notes in the RV refer either to alternative renderings that affect the Translation or to ancient manuscript "Authorities" that affect the Text. There is no example, so far as we have seen, where interpretation has been introduced or where there is any reference to the interpretations of commentators. But here, there is the following lengthy marginal note, which exhibits the compromise reached by the Revisers and the Unitarian. They evidently declined to touch the Text, and consented to put this note in the margin. Its intention will be at once seen:

"Some modern interpreters place a full stop after the flesh, and Translate, He who is overall be (is) blessed for ever:* or He who is over all is God blessed forever. Others punctuate, flesh, who is over all, God be blessed forever."

* What is to be done with the "Amen," in this case, is not stated.

The object of this note is too painfully apparent, but it shows how important is the subject of punctuation. Moreover, it justifies us in not only calling attention to faulty punctuation but in suggesting changes where improvements may be made, which do not touch vital truth except to strengthen and enforce it. Whereas sad to say, some of the changes made by the Revisers are, unfortunately, those which interfere with the Deity of Christ, the Inspiration of the Scriptures, or the freeness of God's grace.

In 2 Samuel 23:5, if we make the last clause a question instead of a statement, we get the clue to a better rendering of the verse.

As it stands in the AV and the RV, it is difficult to make any sense of the verse at all. Not seeing the Structure or the true punctuation, the Translators were obliged to make it a statement.

If we ask what the word "so" (in 2 Sam. 23:5) means in the first line, we have the answer in 2 Sam. 23:4, where we have a description of God's King, and David immediately adds that it will be even so with himself as God's King and with his house in virtue of God's covenant (in 2 Samuel 7) with him and of the sure mercies of (or mercies made sure to) David.

In 2 Sam. 23:4, we have an alternation, the first and third lines speaking of the shining forth of God's light from heaven and its effect on the earth in the second and fourth lines.

2 Samuel 23:4

A. And He shall be as the light of the morning,

B. When the sun ariseth,

A. Even a morning without clouds;

B.  When, from brightness and rain,* the tender grass shooteth out of the earth.

* So some Codices, with four early-printed editions, and the Sept., Syr., and Vulg. Versions. See Ginsburg's Heb. Text and note.

Then David goes on to say that, as that is a picture of what it will be, when He that ruleth shall rule righteously among men, ruling in the fear of God; even so will it be with his house and kingdom in virtue of the Covenant of God.

In 2 Sam. 23:5, the AV renders the word.

The RV renders them.

The Structure of the verse shows that the four lines are arranged as an Introversion, in which the first and fourth lines concern David's house, while the second and third lines are about God's covenant.

If we punctuate the first and fourth lines as questions, we may have this rendering, which certainly has the merit of consistency and clearness.

D. For He hath made with me an everlasting covenant, ordered in all things, and sure:

D. Now, this Covenant is all my salvation and all my desire,

C. For, Shall He not make it (my house) to prosper?"*

* Heb., to shoot forth, as the tender grass, as in line B. above.

We may take other examples where improvements can be suggested:—

Isaiah 64:5, "Behold thou wast wroth, and we sinned: in them have we been a long time, and, Shall we be saved?" In this case, the RV thus revises the punctuation of the AV to its great improvement.

Jeremiah 3:1. The last clause is evidently another question, repeating a similar question earlier in the verse: "And yet shalt thou return unto me saith the LORD?"

Matthew 19:28, "Ye that have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit on the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel." This was the punctuation of 1611, which was continued till 1629. But in 1630, a comma was introduced after "regeneration," which entirely altered the sense. It has, happily since been removed from our modern editions. This improvement should be noted and retained.

Luke 16:9, "And I; say I unto you 'Make to yourselves friends by means of the unrighteous mammon; that, when ye fail,* they may receive YOU into the everlasting habitations?' [No!**] He that is faithful in that which is least is faithful also in much; and he that is unjust in the least, is unjust in much also. If therefore YE have not been faithful," etc.

* "When it shall fail," according to Lachmann, Tischendorf, Tregelles, Alford.

** Beza's Latin and Grashop's English Version both put a full stop after "you." Beza begins the next sentence, "Certe" (surely); Grashop begins it, "Wherefore." We begin it "No!"'

The context clearly shows that Christ is contrasting and not identifying human and Divine modes of judgment. his context (Luke 16:10-12), and the logical conclusion of the parable have no meaning whatever unless the commendation of the unjust steward's lord is set in contrast with the condemnation of Christ. These verses (Luke 16:10-12) are not mere independent irrelevant statements but the logical conclusion to the whole argument.

The reception into the "everlasting habitations" of Luke 16:9 is set in contrast with the unjust steward's being received "into their houses" (Luke 16:4); the principles that govern admission there are the opposite of those that obtain admission here.

Hence, our Lord follows this up by adding the great lesson in Luke 16:10: "He that is faithful in that which is least is faithful also in much! and he that is unjust in the least is unjust also in much. If you have not been faithful to the unrighteous mammon, who will commit the true riches to you? And if ye have not been faithful in another man's, who will give you that which is our own" (see RV margin).

Luke 16:22-23. As at present translated and punctuated, the words read: "the rich man also died and was buried; and in hell, he lift up his eyes." But if we substitute Sheol or Hades for "hell," then we have (as in Isaiah 14:9-20) a representation of dead people talking, as we have of the trees talking in Jotham's parable (Judg. 9:8-15). If we further observe the Tenses and Moods of the verbs and repunctuate the passage, we have the result as follows:

"The rich man also died and was buried also in Hades. Having lifted up his eyes, being in torments, he seeth." There is no "and" before "seeth." It is not an additional statement, "and he seeth," but a second verb, depending on the participle "having lifted up his eyes."

The Greek necessitates this change in translation, and the change in punctuation is not suggested as a modern invention to support any particular interpretation, for it is that adopted in the ancient Vulgate translation, which, though not the original text, and of no authority as a text, is yet evidence of a fact. It is punctuated in the same way by Tatian, Diatessaron (AD 170), and Marcion (AD 145), as well as in the ancient Jerusalem Syriac Version. The fact is that the first three words of Luke 16:23 form, instead, the last three words of Luke 16:22, a full stop being placed after the word Hades, while the word "and" is treated by this as meaning "also." So that the whole sentence would read thus: "But the rich man also died and was buried also in Hades."

"Buried also" implies what is only inferred as to Lazarus, meaning that the one was buried as well as the other. Whether the punctuation is allowed or not, it does not affect the matter in the slightest degree. For that is where he was buried in any case. It affects only the place where he is said to lift up his eyes.

This is further shown by the fact that the three verbs "died," "buried," and "he lift up" are not all in the same Tense as they appear to be from the English. The first two are in the past tense, while the third is the present participle (eparas), lifting up, thus commencing the 23rd verse with a new thought.

Those who interpret this passage as though Hades were a place of life instead of death make it "repugnant" to every other place where the word occurs and to many other scriptures which are perfectly plain, e.g., Psalm 6:5, Psa. 31:17, Psa. 115:17, Psa. 146:4, Eccl. 9:6, Eccl. 9:10. (See Canon VII, Part II).

Luke 23:43, "Verily, I say unto thee, to-day shalt thou be with me in paradise."

This is the common punctuation, but Is it correct? We have already seen enough to show us that we are dependent only and entirely on the context and on the analogy of truth.

The word "verily" points us to the occasion's solemnity and the importance of what is about to be said. The solemn circumstance under which the words were uttered marked the wonderful faith of the dying malefactor, and the Lord referred to this by connecting the word "to-day" with "I say." "Verily, I say unto thee this day." This day, when all seems lost, and there is no hope; this day, when instead of reigning, I am about to die. This day, I say to thee, "Thou shalt be with me in paradise."

"I say unto thee this day" was the common Hebrew idiom for emphasizing the occasion of making a solemn statement (see Deut. 4:26, Deut. 4:39-40, Deut. 5:1, Deut. 6:6, Deut. 7:11, Deut. 8:1, Deut. 8:11, Deut. 8:19, Deut. 9:3, Deut. 10:13, Deut. 11:2, Deut. 11:8, Deut. 11:13, Deut. 11:26-28, Deut. 11:32, Deut. 13:18, Deut. 15:5, Deut. 19:9, Deut. 26:3, Deut. 26:16, Deut. 26:18, Deut. 27:1, Deut. 27:4, Deut. 27:10, Deut. 28:1, Deut. 28:13-15, Deut. 29:12, Deut. 30:2, Deut. 30:8, Deut. 30:11, Deut. 30:15-16, Deut. 30:18-19, Deut. 32:46).

"Paradise" was the condition of the earth before the entrance of Satan and the pronouncing of the curse, so it will be the condition of the earth again when Satan shall be bound, and the Lord shall come and reign in His Kingdom. It is called in Hebrew "Eden" sixteen times and "The Garden" nineteen times. The Greek for these is Paradisos (which we have changed to "Paradise"). It is never used in any other sense than of a place of beauty and delight on the earth. Never of any place above or under the earth. "The Tree of Life" and "The River of the Water of Life" are its two earthly characteristics. The traditional idea of any other place is unknown and foreign to Scripture and is the pure invention of fallen man. It comes down to us from Babylon through Judaism and Romanism.

We see it described in Genesis 2, lost in Genesis 3, and its restoration pronounced in Revelation.

We hope these few examples help to illustrate the painstaking research that goes into working the Ancient Texts and highly recommend to those not inclined to undertake detailed word studies from the originals to utilize the wonderful resource called The Companion Bible that our dear Dr. Bullinger spent so many years of his life to produce under the watchful instruction of The Holy Spirit.

2 Peter 1:20-21

Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation.
 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man:
but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.

The Holy Spirit has provided the answer to our question by instructing us with the knowledge that no part of The Scriptures is of any "private interpretation," and the Scriptures came not by a man's will but as "holy men of God" were moved by The Holy Spirit. Some will say, "But the verse says prophecy, not Scriptures," but they fail to realize that this verse affirms that all Scripture is given to mankind by the revelation of prophecy. The "holy men" were Prophets, and The Word they spoke was, "Thus saith The Lord" or prophetic revelations. Most people have never been taught that most prophecy is forth-telling (as in current events or truths), not foretelling (as in future events). All Scripture is Prophecy from God.

To really study God's Word, we must study the words of His Word. When studying the words of 2 Peter 1:20, we should want to know what "private" and "interpretation" means. As to the word rendered "private," we find it is the Greek word idios and occurs 114 times in The New Testament. Out of these 114 times, we find that it is nearly always rendered "one's own," "his own sheep," "his own servants," "his own house," "his own country," etc., but not once is it rendered "private" except in this passage. This shows us that the rendering "private" is sufficiently abnormal to be suspected and that it would be more consistent to render it "one's own."

As to the Greek word epilusis rendered "interpretation," we shall find that it occurs nowhere else, neither in the New Testament nor the Septuagint (the Greek Old Testament known as the LXX). As this Greek noun occurs nowhere else, we have no simple guide to its meaning as we had with the word "private." For guidance, we must refer to the verb epiluo, which comprises epi, translated as "upon," and luo, "to loosen." Xenophon, the ancient Greek historian, uses this word to describe letting dogs "loose" upon the ground to chase a hare. Another Greek writer uses it to "break open" a letter bearing upon a certain subject. So, its usage seems perfectly clear so far. In the New Testament, this verb occurs only twice (Mark 4:34 and Acts 19:39). From Mark 4:34, it is evident that it will bear the AV rendering "expound" (Just as "private" will bear the meaning of "one's own:" inasmuch as what is "one's own" is "private;" and what is "private" is "one's own"), but it will also bear a larger meaning. He spoke publicly "with many such parables," but "when they were alone," He "broke open" the casket which hid His real meaning; He "unfolded" the treasures that were therein; He "let them loose" as it were and displayed them before the eyes of His disciples. In Acts 19:39, the Town Clerk said, "If ye enquire anything concerning other matters, it shall be "made known" (or shown) in a lawful assembly."

Any of these meanings will do here in 2 Peter 1:20-21, and it will be seen how they harmonize with the one matter, which is the subject, or scope, of the whole passage.

"Getting to know this, first:—that not any prophecy of Scripture springs from one own unfolding,

For, not by the will of man was prophecy at any time brought forth—

But being borne along* by Holy Spirit**, men spake from God."

* ginomai, to begin, come into being, begin to be, become, arise, happen.

** pneuma hagion, Divine power from on high.

Thus, the words are brought into harmony with the scope or subject of the whole passage, and we see how they refer to the origin and source of the prophetic Word and not to its meaning or interpretation.

2 Timothy 2:15

Study to shew thyself approved unto God,
a workman that needeth not to be ashamed,
rightly dividing the word of truth.

The one great requirement of The Word is grounded on the fact that it is "The Word of Truth." And this fact is so stated as to imply that, unless The Word is thus Rightly Divided, we shall not get "Truth" and that we shall get Its Truth only in proportion to the measure in which we Divide it Rightly.

The Requirement is thus stated in 2 Timothy 2:15: "Give diligence to present thyself approved to God, a workman having no cause to be ashamed Rightly Dividing The Word of Truth."

The word in question here is orthotomounta from orthos, "right," and temno, "to cut."

As this word occurs in no Greek writings or nowhere else in the New Testament, we can get little or no help from outside and are confined to Biblical usage.

It is used twice in the Septuagint for the Hebrew yashar, meaning "to be right" or "straight." In Proverbs 3:6 and Prov. 11:5, the Hebrew is (or causative) "to make right" (as in 2 Chron. 32:30; Prov. 15:21; Isa. 40:3, Isa. 45:2, Isa. 45:13.

But it is the Greek word that we have to deal with here, in 2 Timothy 2:15, and we cannot get away from the fact that temno means "to cut;" or from the fact that we cannot cut without dividing. To divide belongs to the very nature of the act of cutting. Even as applied to directing one's way, it implies that we divide off one way from others— because we desire to follow the right way and avoid the wrong.

The only Biblical guide we have to the usage of the word is in Proverbs 3:6, "In all thy ways acknowledge him, And he shall direct thy paths."

In the margin, the RV gives "make straight or plain" as an alternative rendering for "direct." But our ways can only be made straight or plain by God's causing us to proceed on our way aright—i.e., by avoiding all the wrong ways and going in the one way that is right; in other words, the right way is divided off from all the wrong ways.

What else can the word mean in 2 Timothy 2:15?

It matters little what others have thought or said, for we could fill a page with their names and views, but we should learn little and only become confused. The duties of Priests, Furriers, and Ploughmen have been referred to as indicating the correct meaning. But we need not leave the Biblical usage, which associates the word with "guidance in the right way."

The scope of the verse plainly teaches that:

 1. Our one great study is to seek God's approval, not man's. 

 2. We are to show all diligence in pursuing this study. 

 3. As workmen, our aim is to have no cause to be ashamed of our work. 

 4. To gain God's approval and avert our shame, we must Rightly Divide The Word of Truth. 

 5. To do this, we must direct our studies in the right way. 

 6. This great requirement is associated with The Word in its special character as The Word of Truth, i.e., "The TRUE Word."

All this tells us that we shall not get The Truth if we do not thus Rightly Divide it and that we shall get The Truth only in proportion to our "Rightly Dividing" it.

Other titles of The Word have their own special requirements. As "the engrafted Word," it must be received with meekness (James 1:21). As "the Faithful Word," we must hold it fast (Titus 1:9). As "the Word of life" we must hold it forth (Phil 2:16).

But, because this is "The Word of Truth," its paths must be well noted, the signposts must be observed, and the directions and guides in The Word itself must be followed.

We are to "give diligence" to this great Requirement of The Word because it is "The Word of Truth."

It is true that there are many who altogether ignore this precept and have no thought as to obeying this command in their study of The Word.

There are many who make light of our insistence on obedience to this precept.

On what ground, we ask, are we to treat such an important command as though it had never been given?

Why is this command not as binding on Bible students as any other command in The Word of God?

What motive can such have to blunt the point and dull the edge of this "Sword of The Spirit" in this matter?

Strange to say, those who would be little our efforts in rendering due obedience to this command are themselves obliged not only to accept its division into chapters, verses, and punctuated sentences, but they go further and adopt the division of its subject matter which is made by the insertion of chapter-headings and running page-headings according to man's own ideas.

The only question is, Do they Divide it Rightly or wrongly?

For example, in the KJV English Bibles, which many of our readers use, over Isaiah 29, we notice the running page heading "Judgment upon Jerusalem";  and on the opposite page, over chapter 30, we notice the page heading "God's mercies to His church."

Again, over Isaiah 59, we note the chapter heading "The sins of the Jews"; in the chapter heading of chapter 60, we note "The glory of the church." This is despite the fact that this book contains "the Vision of Isaiah the son of Amoz, which he saw concerning Judah and Jerusalem." If these headings are not found in some of the current editions of our KJV English Bibles, it is only proof that still greater liberties are taken in changes of these headings.

Surely, this is dividing the Word. But the only question for us to ask is whether it is divided "rightly" or wrongly.

In consideration of this great and important requirement, there are four principal spheres in which we are to give diligence so that we may follow the right ways, which are so clearly cut and marked out for our studies.

We must Rightly Divide The Word of Truth: 

1. As to its Literary Form.

2. As to its Subject Matter.

3. As to its Times and Dispensations.

4. As to its Dispensational Truth and Teaching. 

We hope this short overview will begin to answer the question "How Did We Get The Word?" and that it begins to show the student that The Word must be "Rightly Divided."  For additional information on "Right Division," see the Study Section under the same name.

1. In John 16:12-13 we read, I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now. Howbeit when He, the Spirit of truth is come, He will guide you into all truth. Does this refer to The Dispensation of The Mystery?

In Eph. 3:1-11 the Apostle Paul makes it clear that The Mystery was a secret Dispensation of The Grace of God and that he was chosen as the sole recipient of The Gospel of The Mystery in order that he might reveal it by The Holy Spirit to the believing Gentile world. In Eph. 3:7-9, he speaks of himself as less than the least of all saints, but by The Grace of God, he was chosen to make known The All Truth of The Dispensation of The Mystery by The Spirit.

The 12 Apostles had been ministering to Israel during The Acts period, The Dispensation of Promise, and had Israel believed God's Testimony, they would have learned The All Truth for that Dispensation and gone on to learn all Truth for The Dispensation of The Millennium. But the nation of Israel refused to believe, and so God declared the nation Lo-Ammi for almost two thousand years. When the Lo Ammi period ends, then the Dispensation of Promise will commence where it was halted, and soon after, The 12 Apostles will sit with Christ during the Millennium in ministering and judging the nations of the world. The Church of The Mystery has no such mission. The 12 Apostles have their names written in the foundations of the New Jerusalem, which is to be here on the earth (Rev. 21:14). There were things that the 12 Apostles could not bear to hear at that time but which had reference to further Truth in The Dispensation of Promise. There was a perfection to be attained in that Dispensation as well. They were to be given The All Truth that they would need to proclaim the coming of The King and His Kingdom during the period of the Acts, but in the near future to the nations of the world.

2. Some claim that the term Israel refers to the ten tribes and that Jew refers to Judah (with Benjamin and Levi). Is this true?

The Word of God makes no such distinctions. This is another example of men trying to bend The Truth to fit the lie. The ten tribes were in Persia at the time of Esther, yet in that Book, they are called Jews 6 times. Our Lord came to the lost sheep of the house of Israel, according to His Own words. But some would have you believe that the ten tribes were in Ireland at that time. Did the Lord go to Ireland seeking them? Paul proclaimed that he was a Jew (Acts 22:3), yet he was of the tribe of Benjamin. Our Lord Himself was a Jew (John 4:9), while Nathaniel called Him The King of Israel (John 1:49). If you use the concordance, you will find many more examples.

3. I still have a little difficulty with the Deity of Christ. Where does He come out and say that He was God?

The Lord Jesus told us He is God in so many places they are hard to count. One emphatic declaration is in John 8:24, where He declares He is The "I AM." He uses the same words as in Exodus 3:14, where God told Moses Who He Is and that He should be called "I AM." Also, notice in John where The Lord uses the name "I AM," the KJV supplies an erroneous "he" in italics, proving that word is NOT in the original manuscripts. Yes, we know the O.T. is written in Hebrew, but the Greek O.T., known as the Septuagint or LXX, uses the exact same Greek words in Exodus 3:14. The Lord and The Twelve Apostles used and referenced the LXX and did not argue with its validity. This one verse should be enough to settle the matter, but The Lord Jesus uses this term of Himself again in John 8:28 and again in the most emphatic way of all in John 8:58, where He declares, "Before Abraham was, I AM." Read the entire section to understand the importance of believing that Christ Jesus is God.

The Lord Jesus tells us He is God every time He proclaims, or someone else proclaims that Jesus Christ is The Son of God. For God's Son would, in essence, and Truth, have to be God see John 10:36-38 and many other Scriptures.

Every attribute of God is also attributed to Him in Scripture. So where is the difficulty? There is no lack of proof but a great lack of belief. That was also Israel's trouble. As for Scripture references, look at Isaiah 9:6-7, John 1:18, John 5:18-27,  John 10:30-38, John 20:28, Eph 3:9, and many others.

4. If people do not really die, why did the Lord say, Because I live, ye shall live also (John 14:19)?

It was not God Who said, "Ye shall not surely die," but Satan (Gen 3:4). All Adam's children (the human race) will die. Man's only Hope for survival is in Resurrection. All in Christ will be made alive. He is the firstfruits of them that slept. In John 14:19, The Lord is not telling The Twelve that believers will not still die. He is once again affirming that because He goes to His Father, one day soon, they will have Life Everlasting. Read 1 Corinthians Chapter 15 a few times.

5. Does the Holy Spirit indwell the believers of this age, those in the dispensation of the mystery? If so, why?

Yes. The Spirit Himself beareth witness with our spirit (His gift, the new nature within) that we are the children of God. Although found in Romans 8:16, this statement is Foundational Truth and for all time. Romans 8:9 tells us that if we do not have the spirit, the new nature, we are none of His. Romans 8:11 tells us that there is a quickening (being made alive) here and now in our bodies and lives that results from this indwelling spirit. So it is this indwelling spirit that seals the believer (Eph. 1:13), and it is this indwelling spirit (God's gift) that can be grieved (Eph 4:30). It is by this indwelling spirit that God can make The Church The Temple, which is The Body of Christ, His Habitation (Eph 2:22).

6. What is this mystery in Romans 16:25, which had been hid since the ages began?

The Mystery of Romans sixteen is not said to be related to a period "before age times" but silenced in or during age times. This secret is the theme of the central section of Romans, and its subject is Adam, not Abraham, man, not Israel or Gentile; the law of sin, not the law of Sinai.

The fact that what was made known in Romans 1 and 16 was "for the obedience of faith to all nations" establishes the unity of purpose that links the whole of Romans together as an indivisible whole. There is no need to adopt the suggestion of Lightfoot that the doxology was added some years after. Praise is ascribed to the only wise God, and wisdom is associated with the unfolding purpose of the ages (Rom. 11:33, 1 Cor. 2:7, Eph. 1:8-9; Eph. 3:10). On this high note, the Epistle ends.

7. What is the gospel of the grace of God in Acts 20:24?

It is the Gospel of the uncircumcision that we find mentioned in Acts 15 and also in Gal 2:7. It is the good news that the Gentiles could become a part of the congregation of Israel and partake of their blessings (Romans 15:27) without being under the law. So, in that early church, the Jew walked by law, the Gentile by grace.

8. What gospel must one preach today lest he be accursed (Gal 1:9)?

No one can be accursed today for preaching any so-called gospel. For one to be accursed, he had to be subject to the law. Israel and the law are set aside today, so no one has been accursed for over 1900 years. Where there is no law, no sin can be imputed. We are under Grace today.

9. Why, at the end of the prophecy of Jonah, does it speak of over 120,000 people and then mention so many cattle? What can be the connection?

God definitely said by the mouth of Jonah that He was going to destroy Nineveh in 40 days. There were no conditions or ifs about it. But the people, including the king, believed God's Word, and they repented. So God, in mercy and kindness, did not do what He said He was going to do. No one can find fault with a Judge who will excuse one at the bar through mercy. We have two other instances of like doing by The Almighty. Adam did not die the day he ate the fruit, and God did not destroy Israel and make a nation from Moses and his family as He said He would. The sentence was lifted in mercy each time as it was on the people and the cattle of Nineveh in Jonah 4:11. The people are said "to be more than 120,000 persons that cannot discern between their right hand and their left hand"; this is a way to describe infants or small children showing there were many times more people than 120,000. There were 120,000 innocents, and the cattle were also great in number and being animals also innocent. So here, The Lord God is asking Jonah, with that many children and animals that did nothing to offend Him, does it not seem right to spare all Ninevah in Mercy which had repented? Considering God's reasoning, Jonah would have no option but to agree.

10. What does repentance have to do with salvation? What is it?

According to the usage of the word, it means a change of mind, and that is for the better. We cannot read any more than that into the word. It does not occur in John's Gospel, which is the great Salvation Book for the human race today. But it is obvious that if a man believes, he has changed his mind from unbelief. However, the word repentance is used much more in the case of those who belong to God and rarely of those who do not believe. It was Israel that was called to repent, for The Kingdom of Heaven was at hand. This word has lost much of its original meaning today, and most folks think it means penance. But the word penance cannot be found anywhere in the Bible. It is just not there.

11. Did Paul write any Epistles while in the prison at Caesarea?

There is no evidence that he did. And there is strong evidence that he did not. When Paul's testimony was not received at Jerusalem, the Lord said to him, "Depart; for I will send thee far hence unto the Gentiles." This cannot be said of Caesarea, for it was not far from Jerusalem. Paul's ministry was in Asia and Europe and ended in Rome.

12. Can it be true that God will raise the unbelievers in their original bodies, punish them, and destroy them?

The Scriptures are very clear on this. 1 Corinthians 15:21-22 "For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive." The word "all" in this verse is - all without exception - for all people are descendants of Adam, the original head of the human race. Christ Jesus is The New Head of the human race, so all mankind will be made alive. The Scriptures do not tell us with what body the unbeliever is raised but do tell us about the Resurrection body the believers will be given, that it is like Christ's Glorious Body. It could be the unbelievers are raised in a spiritual body like the believers (not all unbelievers will suffer death, so the ones granted life will be ready to go), but we are just not told. The punishment the evil unbeliever will suffer is to see The True Life and its Glories but then realize because of their choices and works, they are denied that Life and are never again to be amongst The Living. All mankind have been forgiven their sins because of the finished work of Christ Jesus, but all mankind will not choose to accept The Gift of Life Everlasting. 

13. 2 Cor. 5:18 says that all things are of God. Does this include sin and death and also Satan himself?

The verse before says that old things have passed away for the believer and that all things have become new. So the "all things" that are of God are these new things. Never neglect the context. As some suggest, if "all things" were unlimited, we can go back to Ecc. 1:2 and prove that "all things" are vanity, but in that case, the human labors referred to in Ecc. 1:3-8 are vanity. Always look for the antecedent.

14. What does the Bible say about birth control?

Nothing, absolutely nothing. This is understandable, considering most of The Bible is written to and for God's people, Israel. They having a covenant relation with God and being the bloodline from whom the Christ Child must be born, have very specific laws and customs that must be followed if one were to remain a member of the nation. Pregnancy was considered a great blessing, as it should be, and it was considered a curse if a woman could not conceive. Marriage was for life except in the rarest circumstances, and fornication and adultery were punished extremely harshly. Thus, it is not difficult to understand why this topic is never addressed in Scripture. Life begins at conception, as even a plant seed that sprouts should teach us. Life comes only from God, and we should all realize this life is afforded us by God so that we may choose to receive The Gift of The True Life. The Precious Blood of His Son bought this Gift for us, whereby He forgives us all trespasses. When we receive the Gift by believing in Jesus Christ, God creates the seed of Christ's spirit within, giving us the security of Resurrection where we are Born Again with a New Immortal Body and Life Everlasting by God's Boundless Grace, Mercy, and Life-Giving Power.

15. How did the tradition get started that the church began at Pentecost?

Rome said so. There is no other evidence, either historical or Biblical.

16. Some say that Paul never proclaimed the kingdom of God but preached only the mystery. What is the evidence?

Paul was told first of all by The Risen Lord to preach the things which he had seen (Acts 26:16). What he had seen was what the 12 Apostles and others were manifesting of the nine sign-gifts (1 Cor. 12:4-11). So if Paul preached only The Mystery, we must say the same about the 12 Apostles and Stephen, whom Paul heard. In Acts 17:7, the men of Thessalonica heard Paul preach and reported that he preached another King instead of Caesar. Evidently, Paul was preaching the Kingdom, the same as the 12 Apostles (Acts 26:1-7), up to Acts 28:28.

17. Did not Paul begin a new ministry when he turned to the Gentiles in Acts 13:46? Was not this the beginning of the church?

If you read Acts 13:47, you will find that Paul quotes Isaiah 49:6 for his authority to turn to the Gentiles. Then, this was no mystery or secret hidden from ages and generations.

18. What was the purpose of the ministry of Peter in the house of Cornelius?

We must note some things that are not true to appreciate what is true. Nothing is said about Cornelius attending temple or synagogue or being a proselyte. All we know is that he was a centurion at the head of an Italian band of soldiers and that he was devout, feared God, gave alms to poor Jews, and prayed to God always. This sums up all we know about him except that at the preaching of Peter, who was sent by God, Cornelius, and his whole household accepted Jesus Christ and received the Gift of holy spirit, showing they, too, were saved. Even after his experience of Peter's preaching, nothing is said about him, whether he went to the temple or synagogue or whether he ever joined with the band of Christians at Jerusalem or elsewhere. With that out of the way, we can see that this was a preparation for Paul and his ministry to the Gentiles during the coming period of time, according to the Book of Acts.

19. How shall I choose a church or place of worship to attend?

In John 4:20-24, you will find that this was also the question of the Samaritan woman. And what was the answer? "But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshipers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth; for the Father seeketh such to worship Him." So today, worship has no place designated, but the quality is stressed. It is to be a true spiritual worship. What better place to start it than in the home and continue it wherever you go?

20. You have said that John was preaching to Israel only. What proof do you have for saying that?

Acts 13:24-26.

21. What would be the condition of our country if there had been no churches? Have they not been a great force in keeping our civilization?

We have a great many people today who have gotten all mixed up, and they equate civilization and salvation. There are many ministers today dedicated to the task of saving our society at any cost. We have the do-gooders who want to improve the world and the old nature of man so that he will finally reach the peak of evolution and become like God and be fit for heaven. It is true that the churches have improved and preserved the moral tone of our civilization. But that does not save men. Billy Sunday once said, "There is no difference between the up-and-out and the down-and-out. They are all out." That is right. So, we cannot say how many would have been saved today without the churches, and we must remember many are being saved in spite of them. We do not know how much of the message of salvation would have been preserved in the families of our country if there had been no churches. We cannot answer your question, for there is no way of knowing. Conditions might have been better, or they might have been worse as far as true worship is concerned. Speculation is useless.

We can say that there are more than 45,000 Christian denominations globally, according to the Center for the Study of Global Christianity, April 7, 2023. Do you think The Lord Jesus will be blessed or saddened by this number? The number is staggering, considering they all claim The Scriptures as their Rule Book for Faith and Practice. There is but One Word of God, and it can be found by "Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth (2 Tim. 2:15)."

Consider what Paul wrote the believers when they began to have divisions: 1 Cor. 1:9-13, God is faithful, by whom ye were called unto the fellowship of his Son Jesus Christ our Lord. Now I beseech you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that ye all speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment. For it hath been declared unto me of you, my brethren, by them which are of the house of Chloe, that there are contentions among you. Now this I say, that every one of you saith, I am of Paul; and I of Apollos; and I of Cephas; and I of Christ. Is Christ divided? was Paul crucified for you? or were ye baptized in the name of Paul? 

22. What are the basic differences between the kingdom and the church?

The Kingdom is a part of The Promise made to Abraham and pertains primarily to Israel, but The Church is made up of believers from many nations without any distinctions. The Kingdom will have a King; The Church has a Head. The Kingdom is to be here on the earth where David's kingdom was, with Jerusalem as the great world center; The Church has its place in The Heavenlies. The Kingdom has laws; The Church walks by Grace. In The Kingdom, there is a promise of a Bride, but The Church is The Body of Christ of which He is The Head. But there is one great common Truth: All are Saved by Grace.

23. Is it true that the nation Israel must repent before the Lord can set up His kingdom?

From the human standpoint, Yes. For prophecy tells us that they will mourn and that they will say blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord. From God's standpoint, the day cannot be hastened. He will come in the fullness of time.

24. It is said in Rev. 1:7 that when the Lord comes, every eye shall see Him. Does this mean that all people of all ages will be there to see?

Revelation 1:7 says, "Behold, he cometh with clouds," so people on earth will see Him coming, "and every eye shall see him," that being everyone worldwide will see this event like lightning from the east to the west, "and they also which pierced him" the Jews will see Him and know Jesus is The Christ, "and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him," all men everywhere will wail because they will know they should have believed on Him. So this event is The Lord returning to earth, and everyone will know that He is God from the great to the small.

As for people of all ages, there are a number of Resurrections, and of course, all the believers know He is God. Then, later at the Great White Throne of Judgement (Rev. 20:11-13) is where the unbelievers know He is God.

Phil. 2:10-11 says, "That at the name of Jesus, every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father." This points to a time farther on than that in Revelation. It will be voluntary, and only the living and the resurrected, along with every Heavenly Being, will gladly hail Christ Jesus, Head of all creation, The Creator Himself to The Glory of The Father.

25. Is not Christ reigning as King now in the heavens, and will not this rule continue? How come some say that he is coming down to earth again to Jerusalem and rule over the nations here?

At the present time, Satan and his angels are in the lowest of all heavens, and because of Adam's fall, the earth became the Devil's to rule and subdue. As God's redemptive plan nears completion in the near future, Satan will be cast out of this lowest of all heavens (Eph. 2:2) called the air (Rev. 12:7-12). They will be cast out in the midst of the last week of the 70 weeks determined on Israel (Dan. 9:24).

Now it is patent that Christ is hidden (Col. 3:3-4) and that whenever Christ is Manifested in The Heavens, the members of His Church (not His bride) will be Manifested with Him (Col. 3:4): That is The Hope of The Church of the Dispensation of The Mystery.

Afterward, Christ will come and reign on the earth on the throne of His father, David. In Acts 1:6, The Apostles wanted to know if The Kingdom was going to be set up at that time. Now, since The Kingdom is primarily of Israel and they are to be a blessing to the nations of the earth, how will the Lord and Israel reign over the earth as pictured in Psalms 2:7-12 if they are all in heaven? It is wise to take what The Word of God says instead of trying to force some private interpretation into The Doctrine or change it completely.

26. Was the prophecy of Joel fulfilled at Pentecost, and was the kingdom established there and then?

No, the prophecy has not been fulfilled yet. At Pentecost, the Spirit was not poured out upon all flesh in Mt. Zion and Jerusalem (Joel 2:27-32). There were many Roman soldiers that did not even know about it. There were no wonders in heaven and signs on earth then. There was no change in the sun and the moon. True, Peter spoke of it as the last days when these things should happen, but many years later, John says that he is in the last days (1 John 2:18), and Peter many years later speaks of the last days as still future (2 Peter 3:3). At Pentecost Peter mentions the prophecy of Joel merely to show that what was working in The Apostles was the same Spirit as Joel spoke about. Peter did not say that Joel's prophecy was being fulfilled. The Lord's house was not established (Isaiah 2:2-3) but was totally destroyed shortly later. David's throne has not been occupied by Christ yet. No kingdom was set up, and The Apostles were not set on thrones.

27. What is a mortal sin?

It is a sin unto death (1 John 5:16). Under the law, murder was a sin unto death. In the case of Ananias and Sapphira (Acts 5:1-3), lying unto the Holy Spirit was a sin unto death. In 1 Cor 11:30, Paul speaks of some who sin and are sickly, and some even die. That was a sin unto death. A mortal sin was never spoken of being committed by a Gentile, and it was to those under the law. Today, the law is not in effect, so we see no examples as above among Christians.

28. Should a Christian go to war?

Israel was forced to defend themselves and their land on multiple occasions, and God never spoke against the battles but often helped to fight them. When Jews who had been hired out as soldiers came to John at the Jordan, he baptized them but never told them to quit the army. Our Lord healed the son of a centurion but never told this man to quit warfare. Peter was in the house of Cornelius, but there is no record that he told Cornelius to leave the army. No Scripture can be quoted for either side, except that we are to be subject to the powers that be. One who is in the will of the Lord and trusts Him will have no difficulty with the question. The Lord will put him where he wants, whether on the battlefront or in some peaceful occupation. Trust God and pray He keeps you from wicked men.

29. Can Satan leave hell and wander on the earth at will?

There is no Scripture that says or even hints that Satan was ever in hell or ever will be. At the present time, he is (based on the Scriptural definition of heaven being anywhere above the earth) in heaven. Satan is called "the prince of the power of the air" (Eph. 2:2). He, at the time of his creation, was in the very high heavens, but after he lost the war he started, he was cast to the lowest of all heavens, our atmosphere. Soon, he will be cast down from that position to the earth with no power to ascend to heaven again. Hell is the grave, or the pit, or gravedom, and a quick Hebrew and Greek word search will prove this. One question those who preach hell don't seem to be able to answer is: How do you throw hell in hell? (Rev. 20:14).

30. What about men taking upon themselves the title of Reverend?

This word occurs in Scripture just once, Psalms 111:9. It is used to describe the Name of God. It is blasphemous for man to take to himself that which pertains to God and His Holy Name. We suggest they read the next verse, Psalm 111:10, and gain understanding a cease this wicked practice.

31. Did our Lord wear long hair among men here on the earth?

No. Unless a man was a Nazarite by taking the oath for life (Numbers 6:2-21), it was a shame for him to have long hair (1 Cor. 11:14-16). Our Lord was not a Nazarite; a Nazarite was not permitted to drink wine, and our Lord did.

32. Can a Christian become wealthy?

There is no reason why he cannot. Of course, those who take the story they call a parable of the rich man and Lazarus as literal make it mandatory that one gets rid of all personal property and beg to be saved. But there is no premium on poverty in God's Word. Abraham was wealthy and was a friend of God. Job was the wealthiest of his time (Job 1:3), David was wealthy, and he was a man after God's own heart. Isaac and Jacob were wealthy, and Solomon had more wealth than anyone who has lived or will ever live. And Joseph of Arimathea, who buried the Lord, was reputed to be the wealthiest Jew of the time (Matt. 27:57). Wealth can be a curse and a blessing, but poverty can make a man steal. We have wealthy men today who have contributed much to the spread of The Gospel.

33. I hear that you teach that there are two churches instead of one. Is this true?

Why not read what we write and see for yourself? From time to time, we have written about the seven churches in Asia. We have recognized that there was a church in the wilderness (Acts 7:38). We have taken note of the fact that the Lord was going to build His Church on a rock (Matt 16:18). And besides these were the churches at Rome, Corinth, and many other places to which Paul addressed letters. But it is noteworthy that after Acts 28:28, the word church is never in the plural; it is The Church, not A church. And every church is a body. So today, there is One Body (Eph 4:4), One Church.

34. According to 1 Cor. 16:1, should there be a collection taken up in the meeting each Sunday?

There is one collection only in this passage, and it is for the saints at Jerusalem. These saints were the believing Jews there. This one collection was to be taken up on the first of the week. The word day is not in the Greek manuscript, and the Greek word for week is sabbaton, meaning the Hebrew Sabbath, which would be our Saturday.

35. What is this resurrection in Phil. 3:11?

The word used for Resurrection in Phil. 3:11 is the Greek word exanastasis and is only used once in all Scripture. This is a very special resurrection that Paul hoped to receive and the Prize of the High Calling (Phil. 3:11-14). The meaning of the words is an "Out Resurrection from among dead ones," and this prize of the high calling is an earlier resurrection for those who have remained faithful and suffered like unto the suffering of Jesus Christ. Paul is saying he is not sure if he will attain it so as to show it is a prize for believers who suffer and remain faithful to the end and to contrast it with other hopes and resurrections taught by the apostle. In Hebrews chapter 11, Paul speaks of some who attained a better resurrection still future (Heb. 11:13-16, Heb. 11:39). But they were all of a different dispensation. It is not the resurrection that is the result of believing and obtaining everlasting life, for that is by faith and not by attainment. By 2 Timothy, Paul is confident of attaining the prize and knows his life will soon end at the hands of his captors.

36. I have heard life defined as union with Christ and death as separation from Christ. Does this fit the Scriptures?

Try it for yourself. Read Romans 6:1-11 and use these definitions for life and death. Does this fit?

37. I notice that in the records of the baptism of our Lord in Jordan, it says that He came up out of the water. Does this mean that He was immersed in the water?

In Matt. 3:16 The Greek word used for baptized is baptizō which by definition means "to make whelmed (that is, fully wet); used only (in the New Testament) of ceremonial ablution, especially (technically) of the ordinance of Christian baptism: - baptist, baptize, wash." Now the word used for "went up" is anabainō, meaning "to go up (literally or figuratively): - arise, ascend (up), climb (go, grow, rise, spring) up, come (up)." From these words, it appears He was dipped or immersed.

38. Who are the other sheep of John 10:16?

John 10:16, "And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice, and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd." Since the "fold" He is addressing are Jews and the "other sheep" are "not of this fold," they must be Gentiles. In the Book of Acts, Paul is singled out to be an Apostle of Christ to the Gentiles or that "fold." At the time of Acts 28:28, all who believe in The Mystery are gathered into The Church, which is His Body, and the blessings shift from earthly to Heavenly.

There is no fold now. But God will deal with Israel again someday when The Dispensation of The Mystery ends, and The Dispensation of Promise is restarted, and then there will be another "fold" and "other sheep." The present era is between the folds. For other references to these sheep, see Matt. 22:9-10 and Matt. 24:31.

39. How is it that you teach Pauline doctrine but do not advocate the Lord's table (1 Cor. 10 & 11)?

We do not teach Pauline doctrine simply because there is no such thing. Paul preached four separate Gospels during his ministry. In 1 Cor. 10 and 11, Paul is writing to Jewish believers whose fathers had crossed the Red Sea (1 Cor. 10:1). The feast he is talking about is the Passover, which was observed in the homes, not in public. This feast was a supper observed in the evening, never in the morning or at noon. These two chapters cannot be used as a proof text in support of the observance of the heathen Baal's supper, which Christendom had taken up.  For additional information, See The Communion Or The Last Passover Of The Lord.

40. I wonder why Satan is usually pictured as a black man with horns, hooves, and a tail when it says in 2 Cor. 11:14 that he is transformed into an angel of light. What did he look like when he appeared in the garden to Eve?

The popular conception of Satan is really a picture of Nimrod, the great rebel of Babylon. It is told in the legends that he killed a wild bull of extraordinary strength and fierceness. He is supposed to have taken the horns of the bull and made himself a headdress. It did not take the artists long to add the hooves and the tail (always pointed as a spear), and you have the concept of Nimrod, the great hunter of his fellow men. We are told in Ezekiel 28:11-19 that Satan was created as a covering cherub, and when he appeared to Eve, he was as the Nachash (the Hebrew word translated as "serpent" in Gen. 3:1 but in Hebrew means "a shining one"). So to Eve, he did appear as a great and shining angel, one to revere and believe. No snake deceived Eve.

41. Why do you persist in using the King James version when there are so many modern ones that are more easily understood and do not use obsolete words?

There are a number of reasons for retaining the Authorized Version. Many concordances would be useless, and there would be difficulty with lexicons and even finding other matching research materials, as the Authorized Version of the KJV is the most studied and documented of all biblical texts. It is a sample of the best English of the past centuries. And no modern version can express the holiness and majesty of God as it does. It presents no difficulties to those who have been brought up in Christian homes where the Bible was read and prayers made. Neither does it present any difficulties to one who knows God. These days, we have many Bible software programs where it is easy to compare many different versions with a click of the mouse, but they all seem to use the A.V. of the KJV as their base text.

But alas, the Bible will remain a closed book to the ungodly, no matter its version. We are very suspicious of versions, for they all too often reflect some man's private belief, which may be partial unbelief. None yet has surpassed the Authorized Version, which also has the benefit of putting many words in italics where there were no corresponding Greek or Hebrew words in the original manuscripts. It is also one of the earliest English translations and contains less license to private doctrines and added words, although not perfect (no version is).

42. Who should keep the Passover?

All circumcised Israelites. It was to be eaten in the home. There was to be no leaven in the house. No manner of work was to be done on the day it was observed. Do not forget that this is all about the Kingdom, not The Church. The children of the household were to ask why it was observed, and the master of the house recited the story of the exodus from Egypt. The law never made any provisions for any uncircumcised to observe it. See Exo. 12:47-49. It was in force till the end of Acts when The Church began.

43. Should I put something into the collection plate when I go to a church?

We are not under The Law of the Tithe in our Dispensation of Grace. We should do better than those who gave according to ritual, which is a shadow of the substance of True worship. If you believe the church you attend is teaching God's Word rightly divided, then by all means, give an even greater abundance to help with outreach, but do that according to your heart, in spirit. If you are unsure or new to the church, still give to pay your fare to the show. Jonah paid his fare, even when running from the Lord (Jonah 1:3).

44. What is the meaning of Gal. 2:20? How can one be dead and yet alive?

Christ is our Life, for we have no Everlasting Life of ourselves. Christ is our supply, and we have nourishment ministered by acknowledging Him. This is the fact concerning ourselves as His own, a fact we are required to acknowledge against the background of our own death. He has accomplished for us our death to sin and the old nature as we reckon that we died with Him on Calvary's cross. This is the meaning of the words: "I have been crucified with Christ; yet I live; and yet no longer I, but Christ liveth in me" (Gal 2:20). But for an acknowledgment that we, as to our human life, our flesh, are mortal sinners and have in us no good thing, we then choose to reckon that when He was crucified, we were crucified with him, died with Him, were buried with Him, which allows us to acknowledge and thus reckon that we rose from the dead with Him and that God is quickening us together with Him, and that we ascended with Him, and then sat down at the right hand of God with Him (Col. 2:6-15). He Is our Life hidden in God, allowing us to walk as He walked in this evil world. Until that day, we manifest with Him in Glory (Col. 3:1-4). Acknowledging Him is what allows us to walk in the newness of Life.

45. Paul expected to be among the living at the rapture (1 Thes. 4:15-17; 1 Cor. 15:51-52). Is this rapture still Paul's hope, even though he died and will be among the dead believers of that time?

The word rapture is never used in Scripture, which uses mainly "Resurrection" 1 Cor. 15:51-58 and "Gathering Together" (2 Thes. 2:1) to describe this blessed event. Paul definitely had this Hope, as did every Jew and Gentile Christian up to the time of Acts 28:28. These terms are only for the children of promise, primarily Jews but also Gentiles who became the children of Abraham by faith until Acts 28:28 and when The Dispensation of THe Mystery ends, and The Dispensation of Promise recommenced the Jew and Gentile Christians who stand with them. It has to do with The Kingdom here on the earth. The "Gathering Together" is just a short trip up into the air (called heaven as anywhere above the earth is called in Scripture, this heaven extending to the far reaches of our atmosphere) to meet the Lord as He comes with clouds of angels who will execute Judgment as He sets up His Kingdom seated on the throne of David in Jerusalem. See The Hope Of Paul's Epistles Written During The Time Of Acts

After Acts 28:28, the Apostle Paul no longer has the same Hope. This is proven by the fact that when he writes Ephesians later, he makes an astounding statement to the believers who so well knew the Corinthian and Thessalonian Hope they all shared. Now Paul tells them, Eph. 1:16-22 "Cease not to give thanks for you, making mention of you in my prayers;  That the God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory, may give unto you the spirit of wisdom and revelation in the knowledge of him:  The eyes of your understanding being enlightened; that ye may know what is the hope of his calling, and what the riches of the glory of his inheritance in the saints, And what is the exceeding greatness of his power to us-ward who believe, according to the working of his mighty power, Which he wrought in Christ, when he raised him from the dead, and set him at his own right hand in the heavenly places, Far above all principality, and power, and might, and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this world, but also in that which is to come: And hath put all things under his feet, and gave him to be the head over all things to the church, Which is his body, the fulness of him that filleth all in all.

This is a new Hope, a new Calling; this is The Mystery with its new Home in the Heavenly Places Far above all, not in the air or on earth.

46. Matthew 8:11 seems to indicate that Gentiles from the East and the West will have a part in The Kingdom, but not from the North and the South. Is there any explanation for this?

The phrase "from the east and from the west" in the Scripture is used to denote the "whole world" (Isaiah 45:6; Isa. 59:19 note the words "from the rising of the sun" is how they would say east).

47. If the 70 weeks of Daniel 9 begins at the dedication of the temple, I always thought it had its beginning with the decree of Artaxerxes or Astyages in 454 B.C. Can you explain your position?

Very briefly, you will find two distinct prophecies in Daniel chapter 9. The first one is in Dan. 9:24 and speaks of the second advent of the Messiah. Note that 70 weeks are determined upon the people and the city. This cannot begin with the decree because the people are not in the city till about 49 years (7 weeks) later. So the 70 weeks determined on the city and the people must begin about the time of the dedication of the temple or 405 B.C. It is not hard then to figure that the coming of the Messiah to set up His kingdom would have been AD. 85. However, the course of the city and the people did not run to this end, but the people were set aside at the time of Acts 28:28 and have not been a people since then. The city was destroyed in 70 AD. Now, if the people were cut off at the end of Acts, about A.D. 63, then there are 3 weeks yet to run till the coming of the Messiah. We do not know when this prophecy will be resumed. Now, the 7 and 62 weeks after the going forth of the decree brings us to A.D. 29, the date when Messiah was cut off. That has been completed. See The Seventy Weeks Of Daniel Nine.

48. Does Genesis 6:3 indicate that God will not always strive with men but that one can cross a deadline where there will be no more conviction by the Holy Spirit, and they are forever lost?

In this verse, man is Adam in Hebrew: The verse means that God is getting weary of striving with Adam, for Adam (like others) has become flesh. See note in Companion Bible. So Adam was given another 120 years to live, and he died at the age of 930. This verse has everything to do with the context of Genesis chapter 6 and nothing to do with the believer's walk or moreover life. The believer's life is never in jeopardy, for it is received as the Gift of Life because of the finished work of our Saviour Christ Jesus. There was nothing we could do to earn Life, and there is nothing we can do to lose it. Now, our walk yields fruit and rewards or loss thereof at the Judgement seat of Christ. As in every Dispensation, believers can lose rewards but NEVER Life.

49. Is there any escape from hell once one is in it? If so, how?

The common notion of hell is far from what the Word of God says that it is. Hell is the word sheol in Hebrew and occurs 65 times in the OT. It is translated as hell 31 times, grave 31 times, and pit 3 times. It could be translated as grave all 65 times and not mar the meaning. In the NT, hades is used 11 times. It is also used in the LXX to translate sheol. So it is the same thing. It is translated 10 times as hell and once as grave. Gehenna does not enter into this discussion, for although it is translated as hell, it is the city dump outside Jerusalem. Neither does Tartarus enter in either. The grave or hell is a place where people are dead and live not again till resurrection (Rev 20:5). Our Lord was in hell for three days and three nites. He came out by resurrection and was the first fruits of the great harvest that is still to come forth. Death and hell are to be destroyed (Rev. 20:13-14). So, all go to hell or the grave at death. Those who have Everlasting Life will escape by Resurrection.

50. What is the difference between the gospel of the kingdom and the gospel of the grace of God?

The former includes the latter in one sense. The Gospel or good news of The Kingdom was first proclaimed by John the Baptist, the Lord Himself, then the 12 Apostles, and finally the 70, before Christ's death. Then the Apostles were further instructed as to The Kingdom, and this was The Gospel preached by all up to Acts 28:28. The Gospel of The Grace of God began in the house of Cornelius, about nine years after Pentecost. This was the only instance that Peter preached this Gospel. None of the other 11 preached it at any time. About 17 years after Pentecost, Paul began to preach The Gospel of The Grace of God at Antioch to the Gentiles (just as Peter did) and continued it till the end of the Book of Acts. But in every instance, Paul was careful to preach The Gospel of The Kingdom to the Jew first and then turned to the Gentiles and preached to them The Gospel of The Grace of God, which meant that they could partake of all the spiritual blessings of Israel without keeping the law (being circumcised, keeping feasts, and the rituals). The same Salvation of The Kingdom was at that time for both Jew and Gentile, but to the Jew first.

51. What is the preaching of Jesus Christ according to the revelation of the mystery (Romans 16:25)?

In this context, we learn that the mystery that is in view is one that has been hushed since the ages began. So it is not The Dispensation of The Mystery, which was hidden for ages and generations and had its plans made before the ages began. This mystery that had been hushed had been made known by the prophets, as the context tells us, so it is not The Mystery of Ephesians and Colossians. Also, this mystery in Romans is made known to all nations for the obedience of faith. In the structure outline of Romans, this is explained by the same words appearing in Rom. 1:1-5. It is the preaching of Jesus Christ as the Son of God but connected with His being, The Seed of David. So then this is kingdom preaching and declares Jesus Christ not only the Anointed One or Messiah but truly the Son of God.

52. In what sense, if any, did works ever save?

Basically, we have all through the Bible records of the revelation of life as The Gift of God, received by faith and in no connection whatsoever with works. But on that life, we find based at least two salvations or lines of blessing. One is the promise made to Abraham. At least, The Kingdom aspect of The Dispensation of Promise has much to do with works, as the sermon on the mount will indicate. Also, Mark 16:16 adds that when The Kingdom was being preached to Jews only, they must believe and be baptized in order to be saved. From 1 Cor. 3:11-15, we may infer that good works of themselves did not save and could be burned up, but the worker was saved by fire.  But today, we have a Salvation revealed in Eph. 2:8-10 which is obtained by faith only. This salvation is a creation unto good works, not of works.

53. I am puzzled by Mark 13:32. Does this take away from the truth of the deity of Christ?

In Mark 13:32, The Lord Jesus is speaking and says, "But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father." This has been a favorite verse for those who deny the Deity of Christ. But in reality, it proves His Deity. He knows that no one knows the day and the hour. He knows that the angels in heaven do not know the day and the hour. Does not this knowledge indicate Deity? And what if He does not choose to know? Only Deity can forget or remember at will. He can forget our sins that we cannot do. If the Lord chose not to know the time, then that was His business, and we have no right to question Him.

54. Is glory a place?

If, at any time, it answers the question, Where? then it is a place. Whenever the question of place comes up with any terms, this is a good question to ask. It is a place if it designates where something is to be or to happen. But you will note when you look up the word glory in the concordance that it is not always used the same. It may speak of The Glory of God. It may speak of The Glory of Christ. And there are other usages. The mystery of godliness in 1 Timothy 3:16 says that He was received up into Glory. This answers the question of Where? and is definitely a place. You may try other passages with the same method.

55. What is dispensational truth?

It is the body of truth, doctrine, and practice that is for a particular household of God. Some dispensational truths may be common to more than one dispensation. Some truth may be peculiar to its own particular dispensation. For instance, citizenship in The Heavenly Places is peculiar to The Dispensation of The Mystery. On the other hand, a part of the New Jerusalem is peculiar to The Dispensation of Promise. The word chosen is common to both, but the time of choosing makes the distinction. The choice of some is before the overthrow and the choice of others since the overthrow. This is where the workmanship of Right Division comes in.

56. What is meant by falling from grace?

You are probably referring to Gal 5:4. In the first place, this Epistle to the Galatians is written to the members of The Dispensation of Promise, and especially to the Gentile members who had been grafted into the blessings of Israel and The Kingdom. To these, Paul had preached The Gospel of The Grace of God, that they might receive all the benefits of The Dispensation of Promise without being circumcised and keeping the law. But there were Judaizers who were convincing some of these Gentiles that they must be circumcised and keep the law. So Paul says to them, "For I testify again to every man (Gentile) that is circumcised, that he is a debtor to do the whole law. Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you (Gentiles) are justified by the law; ye are fallen from grace (Gal. 5:3-4). So, to fall from grace was to leave the grace principle or Gospel and go back to circumcision and the yoke of bondage that even Jews who tried could not bear.

57. Was the crossing of the Red Sea literal, or was it just a figurative story?

If it was just a story, then we fail to see the point. If it was just a story, then how did the few million Hebrew slaves get out of Egypt?

58. What does it mean to be baptized with the Holy Ghost? Acts 1:4-5.

At Pentecost, The Apostles were baptized with the Holy Ghost in fulfillment of the promise in Luke 24:49. They received power from on high. This power enabled them to speak in languages and perform many miracles. This was in connection with those who proclaimed The Kingdom. It was not in any way connected with The Church. See Word Studies on the Holy Spirit for Free by E. W. Bullinger for further light.

59. Can Gentiles partake of the New Covenant?

Jeremiah 31:31 plainly states that the New Covenant is to be made with the house of Israel and the house of Judah. This is again quoted in Hebrews 8:8. This is with Israel, not The Church or the Gentiles. The Gentiles have a promise (Eph. 3:6; 2 Tim. 1:1; Titus 1:2). But Gentiles have always been strangers from the covenants of promise (Eph. 2:12).

60. In Acts 20:27, Paul declares that he has shown the whole counsel of God, yet we are led to believe that the mystery that was later proclaimed had been hidden from ages and generations and that Paul did not know it there in Acts 20. How can we reconcile these?

If you look at Eph. 1:9 and Eph. 1:11, you will see two words used that do not mean the same thing. One is counsel, and the other is purpose. Paul did not say that he had proclaimed the whole purpose of God, but God's counsel (in accordance with the purpose then revealed). But when a new purpose or further purpose was made known, there was a counsel or working out of that purpose, as you see in Ephesians one. Be careful with terms.

61. What are the gates of hell in Matthew 16:18?

Since no explanation is given in Matthew 16:18, we must go back to the OT, which the disciples at that time had. In Isaiah 38:10, we read, "I shall go to the gates of the grave." In Job 38:17, "Have the gates of death been opened unto thee? or hast thou seen the doors of the shadow of death?". In Psalm 9:13 "Thou that liftest me up from the gates of death." This can only be Resurrection from the grave. And we read in Psalms 107:18, "And they draw near unto the gates of death." Going back to Matthew's passage, we must conclude that the doors of the grave or hell cannot hold His Church when He calls. They will come forth from the state of death to Life Everlasting in Resurrection.

62. If being born again in John 3:3 means resurrection, then what does it mean in 1 Peter 1:23?

The same word is not used in these two passages. In 1 Peter 1:23, the word means "begotten" (See margin in Companion Bible). In John 3:3, the words used by The Lord Jesus mean "born from above" to be Born Again in Full Resurrection Body as an Immortal Being. So we must conclude that there can be no rebirth or Resurrection without first a Begetting by The Word of God. This is exactly what happens when someone believes and receives Jesus Christ, for at that moment, God creates within them a new "holy spirit" or "spirit of Christ," which becomes a seed or seal of the Life they will one day in Resurrection Rise (Eph. 1:13-14).

63. Is it true that "ALL Paul's early epistles are addressed to Gentiles." References, such as Romans 11:13; 1 Cor. 12:2; Gal. 4:8; and 1 Thes. 2:14, are given to prove the point. Can you shed more light on this?

There is little doubt that Paul's first Epistle was Galatians. It was written to the Gentile Christians of Galatia. It is also evident that Paul wrote Hebrews and that Epistle is not to Gentiles but to his fellow countrymen, which are Hebrews. Romans 2 is to the Jewish believers, with Rom. 2:17 emphasizing it, and other parts of Romans, like chapter 11, is the first half to Jews and the latter half to Gentiles, while many other chapters are to Jew and Gentile believers alike. 1 Corinthians chapters 10 and 11 are to those whose fathers crossed the Red Sea, all being Israelites. The fathers of the Gentiles never crossed the Red Sea. You will note in these chapters the directions for keeping the feast (the Passover), which was never lawful for Gentiles to keep.

64. Must the Roman empire be revived?

For many years, we have heard this debated but have never yet found a Scripture indicating that this must be true. We are open to any proof anyone may offer for this, but we are afraid it is merely a tradition someone started.

65. How can every knee bow confessing Christ Lord, to God's glory, unless reconciled? (Philippians 2:10-11).

Lest any be misled, we must emphasize the fact that reconciliation is an exchange (figuratively adjustment), that is, restoration to (the divine) favor: - atonement, Through The Word of reconciliation as in 2 Cor. 5:19. It means that work was accomplished so that the sins of the world are not imputed. This is Good News for those who do not have life, for it gives them access to God to receive the precious Gift of Everlasting Life. Those that have this life shall live in Resurrection, and they will be given knees with which they can bow and be given tongues with which they can confess. 

66. What does it mean in Philippians 2:12, where it says we are to work out our salvation with fear and trembling?

It is well to consider what salvation is before making any applications. It does not say that we are to work out our everlasting life. To equate salvation and everlasting life will only get us into confusion. When our Lord said to the woman of Samaria that salvation was of the Jews, He was not talking about everlasting life. By faith, the Samaritans or any other people could have life. Peter recognized this in Acts 10:43. Israel had a salvation to work out. It was that they were to be a priestly nation and make known to the nations the name of Jehovah. They were promised the blessings of The Kingdom. To them pertained the preaching of The Kingdom. All this was their salvation, and they were expected to work it out. And so when the salvation of God was sent to the Gentiles in Acts 28:28, their salvation was The Dispensation of The Mystery with all its hopes and blessings. This they were to work out.

67. What is the meaning of 1 Timothy 1:8?

1 Tim. 1:8  "But we know that the law is good, if a man use it lawfully;"  If we go on to the next two verses, 1 Tim. 1:9-10  Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers, For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine; 

So The Law is good, and it is not for the believer who is Righteous through the new nature received from Christ, but for every evil man that "is contrary to sound doctrine." America was founded on the morals of Scripture, in other words, "sound doctrine," America is a nation of laws (which are but a shadow of God's Perfect Law) as The Founders intended. America was not intended to be a nation of ruling men but a nation of men ruled by laws, for The Founders of our country knew these Scriptures. It seems as the end draws near, we are becoming lawless, and our nation is run by men who do not believe God's Word or follow the ways of His Son. We as a nation in the past did "use it lawfully," but more and more, as apostasy grows, the law seems to be used unlawfully against The Lord and His children of light.

68. What is the difference between eternal life and everlasting life?

They both translate the same phrase from the Greek. However, God alone can have Eternal Life, for He has no beginning or end. His children all have a beginning (mortals and immortals) and are given Everlasting Life through the work of His Son.

69. Your teaching seems very queer. How can Christ be King of kings on the earth and at the same time be Head of a church, which is His body in heaven? This is absurd, is it not?

Therefore, this would be impossible and absurd for finite beings like us. But since Christ is Deity, God Manifest in the flesh, He is Infinite and could appear in as many different places and forms as He might choose (Exo. 3:14). See John 3:13 and Gen. 19:24. Do these verses prove He can be in more than one place at a time?

70. Was Christ a soul after the resurrection?

Psalms 16:10 says Thou wilt not leave My soul in hell; neither wilt Thou suffer Thine Holy One to see corruption. This is quoted in Acts 2:27 by Peter, and part of it is quoted in Acts 13:35 by Paul. Christ went to hell just as have all others who have lived and died on this earth. But His soul was Holy, and so did not see corruption. It was raised from the dead before corruption could set in. If He was a soul before death, He was a soul in Resurrection.

71. I have heard it said that God is acting in grace today to all the world and that if He does not act in grace, He does not act at all. Is this according to the Scriptures?

In theory, this is but another version of universal reconciliation or salvation. It just happens that the Redeemer in the Hebrew is also the Avenger. The redemption of Noah and his family brought vengeance on the wicked world of that time. The redemption of Israel from Egypt brought vengeance on Pharaoh and his hosts. The very fact that God loves His people makes Him hate their enemies. We are told that Buddha loves everybody. He sits and does nothing about it. But that is not our God. His Grace is for those who will accept and partake of it. His wrath abides on others (John 3:36).

72. I am a little mixed up. It speaks of the inheritance of God in the heavenlies in Ephesians 1:18, and in Colossians 1:12, it says that we are made meet to be partakers of the inheritance in the holiest in light. However, Ephesians 5:5 indicates that one may lose this inheritance. How is this?

The apparent contradiction is in our not understanding of the two inheritances. The first is by God's Grace and Mercy, whereby He chose us In Christ before the overthrow of the world (Eph. 1:4-6). This inheritance is forever, as we did not, and could not earn it, we are not worthy of it; we are "made accepted" and holy and without blame. The other inheritance and its rewards are what we can gain by our walk; it is earned, and these rewards can be lost, and we will suffer great loss, but our Life and Calling can never be forfeited, for they are God's Workmanship. In every Dispensation, this has been the reality: Life is a Gift, and rewards are for faithfulness.

73. Psalm 1:5 says, "The ungodly would not stand (arise) in the judgment," and that this meant no resurrection for the unbelievers. Somebody said that the word stand did not mean resurrection. Can you answer this?

74. Do you believe in the verbal inspiration of the Bible? If so, how would you translate sheep and vine, and the like for people who know nothing of these things? After all, is not the Bible just the words of men?

Time after time, the Bible claims to be The Word of God. If it is not, then it is false and should be thrown out altogether. It would be dangerous for a certainty if it were just the words of men. But look at Psalm 12:6: "The words of the Lord are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times." God has spoken in man's language to man, but He does not use those words carelessly as man does. And the fact that some might not understand some of the terms used is no excuse to make any changes in The Word of God. How many understand love? How many comprehend the term righteousness? We who are teachers, have to teach what these things are and what they mean. And so it is up to a man to teach what a sheep or a vine is when speaking to the Eskimos. Some tribes do not know what a home is. It is up to Christians to teach and to show them what a home is. We must not tamper with the Scriptures, but we must remember that "All Scripture is given by inspiration (God Breathed) of God and is profitable...(2 Tim. 3:16-17).

75. What is the sin mentioned in Hebrews 12:1?

It is the sin of unbelief, the failure to believe and trust God's Word, and will cause every evil work for self-will causes one to continue to nourish unbelief in a vicious circle.

76. It seems strange that Rahab the harlot should be so well spoken of in the Bible. Why?

Today, when men think that respectability is Christianity, this poses a real question. But Rahab was saved by faith and not by any moral qualities she may have had. So we can say that she was a sinner saved by Grace. People who do not know the Love and Power of God cannot understand His works. Our Lord was criticized because He kept company with publicans and sinners. God is able to take the worst sinner living today and make a saint of him. But men, with all their do-good programs and reformation, cannot do this or see the Perfection of His ways.

77. Why don't we hear more about Jobs' wife?

She was not much good as a help unto Job as a wife. When Job was in trouble and grief, she was no comfort. All she had to say was that he should curse God and commit suicide (Job 2:9 for the Hebrew word used here for "die" is mûth, which means to kill). God did not see fit even to put her name in Scripture—the same with Lot's wife.

78. Why did God have a program of healing in the apostolic times and not have it today?

During the time covered by Acts, The Kingdom was still at hand. If any at that time had been careful to study Daniel 9, they would have been able to set the date of the Lord's second coming and the setting up of His Kingdom. It would have been A.D. 85, just 490 years from the dedication of the temple after the exile (405 B.C.). With that near coming at hand, it would be fitting for those who believed and entered The Kingdom to be alive and ready to meet The King at His coming. So the sick were healed, and the dead were raised during the time that The Kingdom was in view. The sign-gifts were also done before The Apostles taught the people so that they had their full attention and the people could easily understand that what they taught was The Word of The Lord.

Later, when Israel refused as a nation to believe Jesus is their Messiah and repent for killing Him, The Kingdom was postponed at the time of Acts 28:28, and the gifts of the Spirit ceased. The two days of Hosea 6:2 began and must be completed before Israel will again be enjoying The Dispensation of Promise, and at its completion, they will be raised and come into Their Kingdom.

Resurrection and being manifested with Him in The Heavenlies is The Hope of the members of The Church, which is His Body today. Thus, we can see that there are no sign-gifts of healing and the like today, for they were for Israel (1 Cor. 1:22).

79. How about the common teaching that the church is Spiritual Israel? Is it true?

We will never be able to find the expression Spiritual Israel in The Bible. It is not there. History tells us that this expression originated with a man by the name of Origines. He was a Greek writer and teacher of the third century. It was a theory that God was forever through with the Jew, and now all the blessings and covenants had been transferred to the Christian church. A few years later, Emperor Constantine saw this as a great chance to improve his position as ruler. This would make a fine basis for a church-state, making war in the name of and with the aid of religion for ritual, pomp, splendor, and ecclesiastical theatricals. We have on hand today the tragic results of that lie, shrouded in a theory that has caused too much bloodshed and misery in centuries past. The Scriptures tell us of an apostasy and a new world order of organized religion that will take over and rule the entire world with a false Christ or anti-Christ as its leader. Then there will be a great tribulation before our Great God, Christ Jesus Returns.

80. Is water baptism essential for the remission of sins?

Isaiah had a coal of fire laid upon his mouth, which in touching his lips took away all his iniquity and purged all his sins. Our Lord spoke to many during His earthly ministry, remitting their sins without baptism. The members of The Church of The Dispensation of The Mystery are not under law, and they today have redemption through His blood and the forgiveness of sins. They have only one baptism, and it is explained in Col. 2:12-13 as being identified with Christ in His death, burial, and Resurrection, even to a quickening with Him with the accompaniment of forgiveness of sins. No water baptism is mentioned in connection with The Church (Eph. 4:4-6). Water baptism is a part of the law and The Kingdom of Israel, and there are even now Christians who claim that they are Jews (Rev. 2:9; Rev. 3:9)

81. It would seem that Romans 2:14 proves that man did not have a fall but, by nature, does the things of the law. How do you see it?

The Epistle to the Romans has suffered much at the hands of its friends, the commentators, and the expositors. It is a case of being very careful to read the address on the envelope to find out to whom the Apostle is speaking. This Epistle is written to the church at Rome, which was made up of Jewish and Gentile believers. The man spoken to in Rom. 2:1 is seen to be the Jew (see Rom. 2:17). When we read Galatians, we see that the Gentile believers in the churches were not subject to the law of Israel. This is also brought out in the council at Jerusalem (Acts 15:23-29). So here in Romans 2:14-15, Paul is reminding the Jewish believers that the Gentile believers did the things contained in the law by nature (the new nature in the believer). This would only be natural, for the law contained God's righteous requirements for His people. This does not say that the Gentiles observed the ritual of the law. That was settled in Acts 15:23-29.

82. There is a great deal of mention of the Book of Life in Revelation. There seems to be a danger of being blotted out of it. How can one know his name is in this Book?

This is another example of students and teachers carelessly reading The Word. The Book of Life is mentioned seven times in the Book of Revelation. The first usage is in Rev. 3:5, where The Lord tells us if believers overcome, they will not have their names blotted out. But these events are during the time before and through The Tribulation, where believers are tortured and martyred for The Faith. The second usage is in Rev. 13:8 and Rev. 13:7-8 We see there is war with the saints, and the Book of Life contains the names of saints slain for The Lamb from the foundation of the world. While the margin of the R.V. reads in Revelation 13:8, "written from the foundation of the world in the book . . . slain," it still retains in the text the order "in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world," and this should give us pause, lest in sweeping aside a difficulty, we also remove an index of its meaning. By referring to Luke 11:50-51 we shall see that "the blood of Abel" was the first to be "shed from the foundation of the world," and this suggests that the "Lamb's book of life" contains the names of all those who have suffered martyrdom for the faith since the first martyrdom of Abel. Abel especially sets forth the conditions we find ruling in Revelation, for it was Cain, who was of "that wicked one," the seed of the serpent (Gen. 3:15), that shed the first martyr's blood. It is the Dragon, "that old Serpent," the Beast, the False Prophet, and their followers who shed the blood of the overcomers in the time of the end.

83. Do we today still have a need for the Advocate mentioned in 1 John 2:1?

84. What was the spiritual condition of the rich young ruler when he came to the Lord and asked what he should do to inherit eternal life?

This young man, who must have been a "somewhat" in the synagogue, was already a believer. He recognized the Lord as the Messiah, the King of Israel. His request was what he must do to have a place of importance in The Kingdom. The reply of the Lord was very similar to His words in Matt. 19:29. It meant forsaking everything in the world for His name's sake. The price was too high for this man.

85. Did Paul continue establishing churches or assemblies after Acts 28:28?

There is no record that he did. There is no record that such churches or assemblies existed after Acts 28:28.

86. What part, or parts, of the gospel of John are truth for this dispensation?

In the first place, we do not use the term "this dispensation." If The Dispensation of The Mystery is meant, John's Gospel is Foundational Truth and tells us of our Lord's Ministry on earth and the fundamentals to receive The Gift of Life and walk in the newness of Life. So many are misled by the expression "this dispensation," thinking it means this age or time in which we live and that it means a way in which God is dealing with mankind today in general. God does have a special way of dealing with The Dispensation of The Mystery contained in The Prison Epistles, written by Paul, The Lord's prisoner. This Church, The One Body of Christ, is already seated in Heavenly Places. And for the rest of humanity, John's Gospel does apply (John 3:16). There is wonderful teaching in this Gospel and a wealth of knowledge that reveals more of The Father and His Son and Life through His Name. That applies today and is for Gentiles (the Jews have been set aside, John 1:11) is John 1:1-18, John 3:13-21, and John 3:31-36. The reason for the writing of The Gospel is given in John 20:30-31, and the last two verses, John 21:24-25, tell us this Gospel of John for the believer has just scratched the surface of the ocean of Truth.

87. Should those who are Christians gather together at some place for worship today?

It may be that the word worship is somewhat overdone and misunderstood these days. Even in Israel, The Temple was the designated place of worship. The Synagogue was not a place of worship but a place to teach the Scriptures and a court where men might be tried under the law, disputes settled, and penalties meted out. Paul knew this very well, for he had been beaten in the Synagogues many times. In the Epistles written after Acts 28:28, the word worship occurs just once, in Phil. 3:3, where Paul says, "For we are the (true) circumcision, which worship God in the spirit." This is an echo of John 4:23, where the Lord said to the woman of Samaria, "But the hour cometh, and now is when the true worshiper shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth." That worship has nothing to do with a place, a priesthood, or a ritual. It is natural for those who love The Word and The One of Whom it speaks to gather together, but we have no such command today. Leaders often wish it and even pretend it so they can get a following and a big collection.

88. Do you believe that there are two bodies?

In The Dispensation of The Mystery, there is One Body (Eph. 4:4). In The Dispensation of Promise, there was one body (1 Cor. 12:13), including all believers and, of course, the church at Corinth. So there was one body, and there is One Body. But they are not the same. The first was of Israel with an earthly Hope. There is One now of Gentiles already seated in Heavenly Places. The first was to minister to the nations of the earth, the current One making known the manifold wisdom of God to principalities and powers in Heavenly Places. We are aware that most of Christendom does not know much about right division and The Mystery.

89. I am curious about Acts 17:11. What was it that Paul told the Bereans, and what Scriptures might they have looked up to see if it was so?

You have done well to stop and ask such a question, as not many others have done that. In the same chapter, in Acts 17:2-3, you will find what Paul preached: "And Paul, as his manner was, went in unto them (the Synagogue of the Jews), and three Sabbath days reasoned with them out of The Scriptures, opening and alleging, that Christ must needs have suffered, and risen again from the dead; and that this Jesus-whom I preach unto you, is Christ." So it is clear that Paul was preaching and arguing from the Scriptures that Jesus of Nazareth was indeed their Christ or Messiah, their King-Priest of Israel. In Acts 17:7, his enemies charged him with "saying that there is another king (than Caesar), one Jesus." The theme of their Scriptures, the OT, is the Coming Kingdom and the King. And this is what the Bereans found. Paul was not preaching The Dispensation of The Mystery. Even if he had, they could not have verified his message from The Scriptures, for it was a subject that had been hidden in God for ages and generations (Eph 3:9; Col 1:26). Be sure to check this.

90. How can we know that the "voice" in Isaiah 40:3 refers to John the Baptist?

The Holy Spirit inspired Matthew to write of John the Baptist, Matt. 3:3  "For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Esaias, saying, The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight." This is quoted from the reference you gave. Also, you will find that a messenger is to be sent to proclaim the coming of the Lord, the God of Israel (Mal. 2:16-17; Mal. 3:1-4). This is the same Lord and God referred to in your text. Not only does John the Baptist fulfill the place of the messenger, but Jesus of Nazareth is The Lord and The God of Israel whose way is to be made straight. For Jesus Christ is Jehovah.

91. Could it be that Philippians 2:9-11 refers to the man, Jesus, who is another creature or a god?

This reference plainly states that the highest name possible is given to Jesus of Nazareth. That name is found in Psalm 7:17, the first of 36 places it occurs in the OT. It is Jehovah-Elyon, or Jehovah the Most High God. There is no name above this one. If Jesus of Nazareth was not Jehovah, the Most High God, then our Bible is wrong, not inspired, and can not be trusted. We might just as well throw it out and lean on our own understanding. Here is a further quotation from Isaiah 45:23, "I have sworn by myself, the word is gone out of my mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, That unto me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear." In this same context, it is made plain that there is no other Savior. However, Satan still is saying, "Yea, hath God said!"  We find our directions made clear in 2 John 1:9-10: "Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ (what the Word testifies of Him), hath not God ...If there come any unto you, and bring not this doctrine, receive him not into your house, neither bid him God speed." Remember, the greatest sin is unbelief, which is the refusal to Trust God and His Word.

92. What is the meaning of Romans 9:6, where it says, " For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel." Does this have to do with the true seed?

The true and the false seed are not in this context. Rather, the downfall of Israel and the blessing of the Gentile believers is the subject of chapters 9-11 here in Romans. Paul is making it plain that the true Israel of God is not all made up of the descendants of Israel but also includes Gentiles. In his first Epistle, Paul said to the Gentile believers, "And if ye be Christ's, then are ye Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise" (Gal 3:29). In Gal 3:9 of the same chapter we read, "So then they which be of faith are blessed with faithful Abraham." Now, keep in mind that this is in The Dispensation of Promise, not The Mystery. Israel, at that time, is still first.

93. Did John the Baptist have a message and a baptism for Gentiles?

There is no record that he did. In fact, there was no ministry to Gentiles in the NT until the day that Peter went to the house of Cornelius in the city of Caesarea (Acts chapter 10).

94. There is much talk these days about Moses being married to a black woman and also that Philip preached to a colored man of Ethiopia. Do these have any messages we should know about?

The record in question for Moses is Numbers 12:1-10: "And Miriam and Aaron spake against Moses because of the Ethiopian woman whom he had married: for he had married an Ethiopian woman." Most Christians believe the Ethiopian woman was Zipporah, the wife of Moses, and she was the daughter of a priest in Midian. His name was Reuel (Exo. 2:16 and Exo. 2:18-21). The Midianites were children of Abraham by his second wife, Keturah, and so would be the same race and color as Moses. Since Midian was in Arabia, a part of the land of Cush, she would be a Cushite by nationality but a Midianite by race.

However, there are problems with this theory. First, It does not make sense for Miriam to speak against Moses because of his wife (Zipporah), whom Moses had married about 40 years earlier. Also, the words "for he had married a Cushite woman" strongly imply a recent marriage. Then, Midian and Zipporah were never referred to as Kush or Cushite in all the biblical records. Midian and Kush or Midianite and Cushite were never used interchangeably in either the biblical, Egyptian, or Assyrian records. Jethro was never called a Cushite. Josephus differentiated between Midian and Kush (Book II:10-1). Also, there is no evidence of association of the Cushite woman with Zipporah or a Midianite in the passage or other passages related to Moses' wife; therefore, such should not be assumed.

Now, Miriam was the instigator of this open rebellion, as we may see both from the fact that her name stands before that of Aaron and also from the use of the feminine miryâm in Num. 12:1, meaning rebellion, concretely bitter, or rebellious. Aaron followed her, being no more able to resist the suggestions of his sister than he had formerly been to resist the desire of the people for a golden idol (Exo. 32:1-4). Miriam found this occasion to manifest her discontent, for Miriam, in consequence, expected to have greater influence than ever with Moses. Her disappointment at his second marriage would consequently be very great. It would have been quite different if, a short time before, probably after the death of Zipporah, he had contracted a second marriage with a Cushite woman, who either sprang from the Cushites dwelling in Arabia or from the foreigners who had come out of Egypt along with the Israelites. This marriage would not have been wrong in itself, as God had merely forbidden the Israelites to marry the daughters of Canaan (Exo. 34:16). In the taunt of the brother and sister, however, we meet with that carnal exaggeration of the Israelitish nationality. 

Num. 12:9-10 tells of God's Punishment to Miriam and in itself is very telling for the snow-white description of the leprosy given is found in almost all manuscripts, and it is seen as an apt response to a racist slur about a black African. Snow naturally suggests color, and indeed, in the Bible, snow is used a few times to illustrate the color white (Isa. 1:18, Psa. 51:9, Dan. 7:9; see also Lam. 4:7). In God's anger at Miriam, Moses' sister, God says in effect, “You like being light-skinned Miriam? I'll make you light-skinned." So we read, "When the cloud removed from over the tent, behold, Miriam was leprous, like snow."

Acts 8:27-39 tells the wonderful story of Phillip and a man of Ethiopia who is returning home after attending Passover in Jerusalem and has stopped to read The Scriptures. Acts 8:29: "Then the Spirit said unto Philip, Go near, and join thyself to this chariot." Ethiopia was on the direct road from Jerusalem to Egypt. Ethiopia was one of the great kingdoms of Africa, part of which is now called Abyssinia. It is frequently mentioned in Scripture under the name of "Cush." But "Cush" is a much larger region, including the southern part of Arabia and even sometimes the countries adjacent to the Tigris and Euphrates rivers. He was a Eunuch and of great authority, high rank, an officer of the court. He was under Candace, the common name of the queens of Ethiopia, as "Pharaoh" was of the sovereigns of Egypt. He was the treasurer of all her wealth and was given time had come to Jerusalem to attend the Passover. This proves that he was a Jewish proselyte, as it was customary for the Jews in foreign lands, as far as practicable, to attend the great feasts at Jerusalem. Now please read Acts 8:27-39 and witness the salvation of God for one this great who has searched and is guided by a faithful believer walking for The Lord.

95. What is meant by the evil day in Ephesians 6:13?

96. Are we to approach the throne of grace in prayer today, as indicated in Hebrews 4:16?

We have been given a calling and an inheritance in the citizenship of The Heaven of heavens as well as being The One Body for which Christ is Head and in Whom we were called before the overthrow of the world (Eph. 1:4-11). We are God's Plan of The Ages; thus, our relationship is much closer than a King and His people (Eph. 2:5-10).  We are to be His Habitation or Temple in The Heavenly Places, called His Masterpiece of Grace, Mercy, and Love (Eph. 2:19-22). We should always feel we can go to Him with any need, for God and His Son have given us all things.

As for the word throne, it does not appear in any of the Epistles Paul wrote after Acts 28:28. It is not found in The Gospel of John, which was also written this side of Acts. The throne has to do with a King and His Kingdom. In the plural, it occurs in Col. 1:16-20, but it concerns thrones, dominions, and the like in heaven and earth, and not The Throne of God, and we are told we are in Him Far above all.

97. Romans 6:14-15 speaks of not being under the law, but under grace. Was not the Jew still under the law then?

Yes, the Jew was still under the ceremonial law, known as The Law. But in the reference you gave, there is no article. Under faith, love, and grace, the Jew was no longer subject to the moral law. The moral law is contained in the last 5 of the Ten Commandments. You can readily see that if one loves his neighbor as himself, then this moral law is void. It is rather strange to say that law is for the lawless. But that is right. The Gentile believers in Rome had "the new nature," and so did the things of the law, even though they never had it (Romans 2:14). Romans 13:8,10 shows that love is fulfilling the law (the moral law).

98. According to Ephesians 3:2, is not this the age or dispensation of grace?

No. This verse tells us that a special Dispensation of Grace was given to Paul so that he might preach The Gospel of The Dispensation of The Mystery. Just notice how Paul follows this statement up in Eph. 3:7-11. Compare this with Col. 1:25, where he speaks of his ministry being a Dispensation of God to him. Col. 1:26-27 speaks of this ministry as The Mystery.

99. When did water baptism cease to be the rule for God's people?

The Apostles and Paul baptized believers with water in the Acts era. Paul makes it known that after Acts 28:28, there is one baptism (Eph 4:5), and Col 2:12 describes this baptism as being identified with Christ in death, burial, and resurrection. So, we must conclude that water baptism ceased at the end of Acts.

100. Is it true that two distinct purposes of God are revealed in the Bible?

Yes, that is true. (1) A distinctive purpose is revealed concerning Israel, The Kingdom, and the earth program (not connected with powers in the heavens). The Kingdom phase culminates in The Coming of The King, the Resurrection of His people, Israel, and the setting up of The Kingdom. (2) There is another distinctive purpose revealed by God after Acts 28:28, which has to do with the Gentiles (nations), and this is in connection with The Heavenly Places and heavenly beings, and this is The Church. All believers outside these two distinctive purposes from Adam till now will have their part with the dying malefactor in paradise (the new earth). This groups all believers into three groups, but with two spheres of blessing: the earth and the heavens.